(Mishnah): If a person pickled, boiled or salted produce the field, it is obligated. If he buried it in the ground (to ripen), it is exempt. If he dipped it whilst still in the field, it is exempt. If he bruised olives to remove the bitter flavor, they are exempt.

If a person squeezed olives onto his skin, it is exempt. But if he first squeezed into his hand, it is obligated.

If he skims wine after adding it to a cold dish, it is still exempt. But if he skims it after pouring it into a pot, it is obligated because it is like a small (collection) vat (in the wine press).

(Gemara): 'If a person pickles etc.' (The following things obligate in Maaser) - fire (i.e. cooking), acquisition, salting, separating Terumah, Shabbos and (bringing into) a protected courtyard.

As R. Yochanan said that acquisition, Shabbos and a courtyard Rabbinically obligate.

R. Ami quoted from R. Shimon ben Lakish that the one that is clearest (to be from the Torah) is the protected courtyard.

Question: Does 'if he pickled' mean when its pickling is complete and 'if he boiled' mean when its boiling is complete?

Suggestion (Tosefta): If one who singes sheaves in fire in order to eat them as roasted grains, they become obligated.

But they do not become completed through singeing; so it is clear that even if food was not fully boiled with fire, it becomes obligated!

Rebuttal: Since he intended to eat them as roasted grains, they were considered complete.

What's the source for that? A Baraisa that teaches that if one picks sheaves to eat them as rolled grains, they are considered complete and are obligated. However, if he picked them to make dough, they aren't yet complete and are still exempt.

If a person pickled or boiled without the owner's consent, it's a dispute between R. Yochanan and R. Shimon ben Lakish...

If a person smoothed over another person's pile without his consent - R. Yochanan said that it becomes Tevel and R. Shimon ben Lakish said that it does not.

Rebuttal (R. Yudan): That case is different - smoothing the pile is something that everyone does, so the owner would certainly be happy with his actions; here, the owner might not want to pickle or boil them (so even R. Yochanan could agree).

Question: If a person consecrated a vegetable and then boiled it whilst it was under Hekdesh's ownership; if he then redeemed it and brought it into a protected courtyard, what's the law?

Answer: According to R. Shimon ben Lakish, it becomes obligated - as bringing into a protected courtyard creates a Torah obligation and boiling only brings a Rabbinic obligation.

Question: (According to R. Shimon ben Lakish) if he brought it into the courtyard (having partially boiled it whilst still under Hekdesh's ownership) and then redeemed it and finished off boiling it, what's the law?

Answer: All agree that the second boiling obligated it (as he showed that the completion was only after it left Hekdesh's ownership)

Question: If he consecrated it, partially boiled it, brought it into a protected courtyard, redeemed it and finished off boiling it, what's the law?

Answer: All agree that it became obligated.

Question: If he boiled it (whilst still under Hekdesh's ownership and) redeemed it and then decided to dry it out - if we say that boiling obligates even something that is not complete, then boiling whilst in Hekdesh's ownership exempts it. If boiling does not obligate something that is not complete, boiling whilst in Hekdesh's ownership does not exempt.

Question (R. Yirmiyah): If he squeezed olives into a dish of food in order to fry them with oil; does the frying establish its obligation to tithe?

Answer: Certainly even without frying, the oil is heated by the fire and is established for tithing. If it would be possible to fry without fire, one could ask if it is considered to be cooked; (but since it is impossible, certainly it obligates).

(R. Yosi bar Kahana citing R. Yona): R. Chalafta ben Shaul taught in a Baraisa - If one buys fruits to use them to recline and eat (as an important meal) in the field, they become Tevel. If it was not to recline, it's not Tevel.

Question: When does reclining make Tevel?

Answer: When wine is served.

Question: If he decided to recline but ultimately did not, have they been established? (The Gemara leaves this question unanswered.)

(Tosefta): 'If garlic, cress or mustard were crushed in oil in the field, they become Tevel.'

This only refers to crushing Tevel garlic with Chulin oil. What if Chulin garlic was crushed with Tevel oil? (Is it considered the completion of the oil that obligates? The Gemara leaves this question unanswered.)

(R. Zeira/ R. Chiya bar Ashi citing Rav): If a cluster of grapes was squeezed into a cup, it becomes Tevel. If squeezed into a pot of food, it doesn't become Tevel.

Question: Doesn't cooking it anyway make it Tevel?

Answer: It refers to a cold dish.

The Mishnah taught that if he skims wine after pouring it into a pot, it is obligated.

(R. Elazar): It refers to an empty pot.

Support: The Mishnah also implies this - as it taught - 'if he skims wine after adding it to a cold dish, it is still exempt. But if he skims it after pouring it into a pot, it is obligated because it is like a small (collection) vat (in the wine press)'. (Note: This entry follows the text of the Vilna Gaon, who removes the word 'Lo'.)