Implied Question: But in Menachos 55b, the Gemara states that if a 'K'lal u'P'rat' are distant from each other, they are not considered a 'K'lal u'P'rat'?

Answer: The Gemara does not mean that they are not considered a 'K'lal u'P'rat' at all, but that we only treat it as such to include one thing, like here, where we include 'Akum' (from the K'lal).

Implied Question: Even though he was already naked from the time of the stoning ...

Answer: We would otherwise have thought that one is obligated to dress him before hanging him.

Implied Question: Then how was Shimon ben Shetach permitted to sentence the eighty witches on the same day?

Answer: Because there are many kinds of witchcraft 'Ba'alas-Ov, Yid'oni, Chover Chaver and more.

Implied Question: Then why does the Gemara in Perek Kisuy ha'Dam Chulin, 89a) permit the soil of Ir ha'Nidachas because the Torah writes "ve'es Kol Shelalah Tikbotz el Toch Rechovah Vesarafta" - from which it Darshens 'that only things that need only to be gathered and burned, but not what requires detaching as well?

Answer: The cases are not camparable, inasmuch as earth is considered more attached to the ground than a plank of wood.

Suggested Text: Some commentaries have the text 'Kalei', since the Gemara will shortly say 'Kalas'.

Refutal: This is not necessary however. And we find also in Perek Arba Misos (later, Daf 66a) regarding the Pasuk "Elokim Lo Sekalel" that the Gemara asks 'Let it say "Lo Seikal"?

Clarification (Part 1): There is no question that there is a Kaparah, as we will learn later on Daf 47b (in Perek Arba Misos 'When does the Kaparah take place? From the time that they experience a little pain of the grave'.

Clarification (Part 2): What the Gemara therefore means to ask is that, even if assuming that there is both Bizayon and Kaparah, which is the main one?

Question: Surely there is more Kaparah there where the Meis is not buried than there where he is, as we learned in a Beraisa later in the Perek (on Daf 47a) 'It is a good sign for a dead person if he is not eulogized and not buried'?

Answer: The Gemara does not mean that he is not buried at all, but that he is not buried according to the honor he deserves.

Clarification (Part 1): The 'Bizayon discussed here is not referring to the Bizayon of the deceased, because if it was, why does he not have the right to be Mochel? ...

Clarification (Part 2): ... but to the Bizayon of the family, but as far as the deceased is concerned, it is a Bizayon for him if he is not lying on his stretcher in a dignified manner.

Implied Question: Even though the Gemara states in Kesuvos, 84a, that if someone sells his (family) grave, the family members come and bury him there against his will, due to the slight of the family ...

Answer: It is different there, because they want to bury all the family members in one spot (see also Tosfos ha'Rosh).

Question (Part 1): The Gemara in Perek ha'Areil (Yevamos, 78a), commenting on the the words "el Sha'ul" (in the Pasuk "el Sha'ul ve'el Beis-ha"Damim"), explains that the plague to which the Pasuk is referring was a punishment for not eulogizing Sha'ul properly ...

Question (Part 2): Now if a Hesped is in honor of the living, why were the people punished, seeing as they were Mochel their Kavod?

Answer #1: The reason that they did not eulogize Sha'ul properly was (not due to Mechilah, but) because they were afraid to demonstrate their sadness, before David.

Answer #2: Alternatively, even if a eulogy is 'Yakra de'Chayei', a king is different, since it is particularly degrading for him not to be eulogized properly.