In the Pasuk in Ki Seitzei "ve'Chi Yih'yeh be'Ish Chet Mishpat Maves, ve'Salisa oso al Eitz",...
... what does Rebbi Eliezer learn from the word "Oso"?
... what do the Rabbanan learn from the word "be'Ish"?
Why do the Rabbanan decline to learn Rebbi Eliezer's D'rashah from "Oso")?
On what grounds do we refute Resh Lakish's suggestion that Rebbi Eliezer learns from "be'Ish" to preclude a ben Sorer u'Moreh from hanging?
From where does Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak then learn that?
In the Pasuk in Ki Seitzei "ve'Chi Yih'yeh be'Ish Chet Mishpat Maves, ve'Salisa oso al Eitz" ...
... Rebbi Eliezer learns from the word "Oso" - "Oso", 'be'Lo Kesuso, ve'Lo osah be'Lo Kesusah' (that after bring stoned, a woman is hanged with her clothes).
... the Rabbanan learn from the word "be'Ish" - "be'Ish", 've'Lo be'Ishah' (that a woman is not hanged after being stoned.
The Rabbanan decline to learn Rebbi Eliezer's D'rashah from "Oso") - because once the Torah writes "be'Ish" to preclude a woman from hanging, Rebbi Eliezer's D'rashah is meaningless [though it is not clear what they do learn from there]).
We refute Resh Lakish's suggestion that Rebbi Eliezer uses "be'Ish" to preclude a ben Sorer u'Moreh from hanging (even though he is Chayav Sekilah) - on the basis of a Beraisa, where he specifically includes a ben Sorer u'Moreh in the Din of hanging ...
... which Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak learns from the same word "be'Ish" (though it is not clear as to why Rebbi Eliezer needs a Pasuk for that).
Considering that "Ish" is a 'Miy'ut' (a word that precludes) and not a 'Ribuy' (that includes), how can Rebbi Eliezer use it to include?
What is the second 'Miy'ut' that enables him to include a ben Sorer u'Moreh in the Din of hanging?
If a ben Sorer u'Moreh is not put to death for the sin that he performed, then why is he put to death?
In spite of the fact that "Ish" is a 'Miy'ut' (a word that precludes) and not a 'Ribuy' (that includes), Rebbi Eliezer uses it to include - because it is followed by another word that excludes ...
... "Chet" (bearing in mind that a ben Sorer u'Moreh is not killed because of his sin), and we have a principle that two consecutive exclusions come to include.
A ben Sorer u'Moreh is not put to death for the sin that he performed - but for the many sins that he is eventually bound to perform, and the bitter end that he is inevitably heading for.
We learned in our Mishnah that Beis-Din cannot judge two cases of Chayvei Miysah on the same day. How does Rav Chisda initially qualify this?
On what grounds does Rav Ada bar Ahavah object to this distinction, based on our Mishnah?
How do we therefore amend Rav Chisda's statement?
Why was the case of Shimon ben Shetach then considered 'Miysah Achas Ke'ein Sh'tei Miysos', seeing as they were all witches?
We learned in our Mishnah that Beis-Din cannot judge two cases of Chayvei Miysah on the same day. Initially, Rav Chisda qualifies this - by confining it to where the two accused are subject to two different types of death, but not when they are both subject to the same death.
Rav Ada bar Ahavah objects to this distinction, based on our Mishnah - which queries Shimon ben Shetach's killing the eighty witches on the same day, even though they were all subject to the same death-sentence.
We therefore amend Rav Chisda's statement, and confine the ruling in our Mishnah - to one type of death that is like two ('Miysah Achas Ke'ein Sh'tei Miysos'), inasmuch as the sinners are guilty of two different sins (even though they are subject to the same death), but does not apply when both transgressed the same sin.
The case of Shimon ben Shetach is considered 'Miysah Achas Ke'ein Sh'tei Miysos' (despite the fact that they were all witches) - since they were guilty of different branches of witchcraft (one was an Ov, and another one, a Yid'oni ... ).
Rav Ada bar Ahavah queries Rav Chisda from a Beraisa. What does the Tana there say with regard to judging a man and a woman who committed adultery on the same day?
Rav Chisda will establish this Beraisa by a bas Kohen, and 'the man' refers either to the adulterer or to the witnesses who were Mazim her Zom'min. What punishment are we talking about in the case of a bas Kohen ...
... and the adulterer (assuming they were betrothed)?
... and the adulterer (assuming they were married)?
... and the Zom'mei Zomemin?
What did Rebbi Eliezer ben Ya'akov hear with regard to 'Makin ve'Onshin'? What does he mean by 'Onshin'?
What is the reason for this?
To demonstrate this, he cites two examples of Beis-Din's arbitrary justice. What did they do to a man ...
... who rode a horse on Shabbos in the time of the Greeks?
... who was intimate with his wife under a fig-tree?
Rav Ada bar Ahavah queries Rav Chisda from a Beraisa - which forbids Beis-Din even to judge a man and a woman who committed adultery, on the same day.
Rav Chisda will establish this Beraisa by a bas Kohen, and 'the man' refers either to the adulterer or to the witnesses who were Mazim her Zom'min. The punishment, in the case of a bas Kohen ...
... and the adulterer (assuming they were betrothed) is - Sekilah.
... and the adulterer, (assuming they were married), is - Chenek.
... and the Zomemei Zom'min - is whichever of the two above punishments the adulterer would have received (see Tosfos cited in Hagahos ha'Bach).
Rebbi Eliezer ben Ya'akov heard that Beis-Din 'Makin ve'Onshin' arbitrarily (even when the transgressor is not Chayav Malkos or Misah [which is what is meant by 'Onshin']) ...
... because the current laxness that prevails demands it.
To demonstrate this, he cites two examples of Beis-Din's arbitrary justice. When a man ...
... rode a horse on Shabbos in the time of the Greeks - they stoned him to death (even though riding a horse on Shabbos is not a Melachah).
... had relations with his wife under a fig-tree - they gave him Malkos.
Our Mishnah describes the actual hanging. After sticking a beam into the ground, how do they hang the dead man on it?
Rebbi Yossi disagrees. What does he say?
How long do they leave the body hanging?
At which stage will they have transgressed the La'av of "Lo Salin Nivlaso" (in ki Seitzei)?
To whom else other this La'av apply, besides someone who has been hanged after being stoned?
Our Mishnah describes the actual hanging. After sticking a beam into the ground, they hang the dead man on it - by fixing a wooden peg into it somewhere near the top, and then suspending him by his hands, which are bound together above his head.
According to Rebbi Yossi - they do not stick the beam into the ground, but lean it against the wall. They then hang the dead man in the air behind the board (See Tiferes Yisrael) like one hangs animals to be skinned.
They do not leave the body hanging at all - but take it down immediately.
They will have transgressed the La'av of "Lo Salin Nivlaso" (in ki Seitzei) - only if they leave the body hanging all night (see Sugya Amud Beis).
The La'av of "Lo Salin" - is not confined to someone who is hanged after being stoned. It extends to all corpses, which may not remain unburied until the morning.
Why does leaving the dead man hanging longer than necessary constitute a Chilul Hash-m?
Rebbi Meir in our Mishnah cites Hash-m who says 'Kalani me'Roshi, Kalani mi'Zero'i'. What does this mean? On what occasion does He say it?
What can we extrapolate from there?
Under which circumstances does someone who does not bury his dead on the same day not transgress the La'av of "Lo Salin"?
Leaving the dead man hanging longer than necessary constitute a Chilul Hash-m - because, it is a reminder to all who see it that someone cursed Hash-m (or served idols).
Rebbi Meir in our Mishnah cites Hash-m who says 'Kalani me'Roshi, Kalani mi'Zero'i' - 'My head and My arms are heavy (as will be explained in the Sugya); He says this - in connection with people who bring troubles upon themselves with their sins.
We can extrapolate from there - that if Hash-m is so perturbed with the troubles of Resha'im, who have to die, imagine how perturbed He is when Tzadikim suffer!
Someone who does not bury his dead on the same day will not transgress the La'av of "Lo Salin" - if his motives are in honor of the deceased person (in order to make him a coffin or to obtain shrouds).
Where are those who are killed at the hand of Beis-Din buried? Why are they not buried in their ancestral burial-grounds?
At which stage do they merit re-burial in their ancestral burial-grounds?
What do the relatives do after the death penalty has been carried out?
Why do the relatives of Chayvei Misos Beis-Din not mourn for them?
Then why do they practice Aninus"
Those who were killed at the hand of Beis-Din are not buried in their ancestral burial-grounds, but - in one of two special graveyards, one for the Neheragin and the Nechenakin, the other, for the Niskalin and the Nisrafin. They are not buried in their ancestral burial-grounds - because it is incorrect to bury a Rasha among Tzadikim.
They merit re-burial in their ancestral burial-grounds - as soon as their flesh has decomposed.
After the death-penalty has been carried out - the relatives come and greet the Dayanim and the witnesses, to demonstrate that (unlike the relatives of the witches of Shimon ben Shetach) - they hold nothing against them.
The relatives of Chayvei Misos Beis-Din do not mourn for them - so that this disgrace too, should help to atone for their sin.
They do however, practice Aninus" - because Aninus, a negative Mitzvah which only affects the heart (as opposed to Aveilus, which comprises positive concepts), and does not therefore constitute Kavod ha'Meis.
What does the Beraisa learn from the fact that the Pasuk in Ki Seitzei writes "Chet Mishpat Maves ve'Humas ve'Saliso oso ... " (and not just "Chet Mishpat Maves ve'Saliso oso ... ")?
Why do Beis-Din wait until shortly before Sheki'ah before concluding the Din of the accused?
What is the procedure with regard to hanging him and taking him down?
The Beraisa learns from the fact that the Pasuk in Ki Seitzei writes "Chet Mishpat Maves ve'Humas ve'Saliso oso ... " (and not just "Chet Mishpat Maves ve'Saliso oso ... ") - that the condemned man is stoned first and hanged afterwards (rather than vice-versa, in the way that the Nochrim do).
Beis-Din wait until shortly before Sheki'ah before concluding the Din of the accused - for fear that if they condemn him, put him to death earlier in the day and hang him, they will forget to take him down before nightfall.
One person hangs him, and another immediately unties his hands and takes him down.
Given that we already learn from one of the extra Leshonos that the beam on which the condemned man is hanged also requires burial, what does the Tana learn from the extra words "Ki Kavor"?
What does Rebbi Yossi add to this D'rashah?
What parable does Rebbi Meir give to explain why the body must be taken down immediately?
What does that have to do with our case?
Given that we already know (from one of the extra Leshonos in the Pasuk) that the beam on which the condemned man is hanged also requires burial, the Tana learns from the extra words "Ki Kavor" - that the hanging must take place on a detached beam of wood (which only requires burial), and not on a tree (which requires chopping-down and burial).
Rebbi Yossi adds to this D'rashah - that the beam may not be stuck into the ground either, because then it would require digging out and burial (as we learned in our Mishnah).
To explain why the body must be taken down immediately, Rebbi Meir gives the parable - of two like-twin brothers, one of whom became king, the other, a robber. One day, the robber was caught and hanged. However, when people confused the hanging man with the king, the king ordered him to be taken down.
In our case too - man is created in the Image of G-d (and like in the case of a Mashal, it would be a Chilul Hash-m to leave him hanging).
When, according to Rebbi Meir, Hash-m says 'Kalani me'Roshi ... ', on what grounds does Rava refute Abaye's suggestion, that He means to say 'Kal Lis' ('I do not feel light in My head ... ' meaning that He feels heavy])?
According to Rava, Hash-m means 'Kil Li Alma'. What does this mean?
In fact, Rebbi Meir bases his statement on the Pasuk "Ki Kil'las Elokim Taluy". How do we know that the word is not needed for itself (to teach us that someone who curses Hash-m must be hanged)?
In that case, from where do we learn that a Mekalel (and whatever we learn from it) must be hanged? Perhaps the Pasuk is needed solely for the current D'rashah?
Rava refutes Abaye's suggestion, that. when, according to Rebbi Meir, Hash-m says 'Kalani me'Roshi ... ', He means to say 'Kal Lis' ('I do not feel light in My head ... ', meaning that He feels heavy]) - because then, He should rather have said 'Kaveid Alai Roshi ... '.
According to Rava, Hash-m means 'Kil Li Alma' - meaning 'The world is too heavy for Me' (only Hash-m said ['Kil' instead of 'Kaveid'] 'be'Lashon Sagi Nahor', since what He said sounds less drastic than what He really meant).
In fact, Rebbi Meir bases his statement on the Pasuk "Ki Kil'las Elokim Taluy". We know that the word is not needed for itself (to teach us that someone who curses Hash-m must be hanged) - because then, the Pasuk should have said (not "Kil'las'", but) 'Mekalel'.
Nevertheless, we also learn that a Mekalel (and whatever we learn from it) must be hanged - because if it came solely for the current D'rashah, then the Torah would have said 'Ki Kilas Elokim ... '. "Kil'las", with two 'Lameds', enables us to learn both D'rashos.
From where does Rebbi Yochanan in the name of Rebbi Shimon ben Yochai learn that whoever leaves his dead unburied until the morning, transgresses the La'av of "Lo Salin"?
And what does Rebbi Yochanan learn from there in the second Lashon?
What did Rav Acha bar Ya'akov comment, when in reply to Shavur Malka (King of Persia)'s request for the source of burial, Rav Chama remained silent?
Why did Rav Chama in fact, not cite as a source ...
... "Kavor"?
... "Tikberenu"?
... the fact that one buries Tzadikim?
... the fact that Hash-m buried Moshe, or that Achiyah ha'Shiloni prophesied that Aviyah ben Yeravam would merit burial for negating the border-guards that his father had placed?
... the fact that Yirmiyah prophesied that the Resha'im will not merit burial?
Rebbi Yochanan in the name of Rebbi Shimon ben Yochai learns that whoever leaves his dead unburied until the morning, transgresses the La'av of "Lo Salin" from the word "Tikberenu" (in the Pasuk "Kavor Tikberenu ... Lo Salin"), which is otherwise superfluous (see Rashash).
In the second Lashon, Rebbi Yochanan learns from there - the Mitzvah of Kevurah (burying one's dead).
When, in reply to Shavur Malka (King of Persia)'s request for the source of burial, Rav Chama remained silent, Rav Acha bar Ya'akov commented - that the world seemed to have been handed over to fools, because, he thought, there are so many possible sources.
Rav Chama in fact, did not cite as a source ...
... "Kavor" - because that could refer to placing the corpse in a coffin and leaving it above ground level.
... "Tikberenu" - because Shavur Malka would never accept a superfluous word as a Halachic source.
... the fact that one buries Tzadikim - because that might just be a Minhag, and not a Halachah.
... the fact that Hash-m buried Moshe, or that Achiyah ha'Shiloni prophesied that Aviyah ben Yeravam would merit burial for negating the border-guards that he father had placed - because both of these may have merely been a matter of conforming to the Minhag.
... the fact that Yirmiyah prophesied that the Resha'im will not be eulogized and will not merit burial - since he too, might have meant that they will not merit to be buried according to the Minhag (and does not prove that it is Halachah).
We ask whether the purpose of burial is to avoid the disgrace of bodies lying in the open rotting and splitting open (see also Tosfos DH 'Kevurah'), or to attain atonement by being placed deep inside the ground. What is the basis of the She'eilah?
What are its ramifications?
On what grounds do we refute the attempt to resolve the She'eilah from ...
... Tzadikim, who surely do not require a Kaparah?
... the Resha'im of Yirmiyah's prophesy, which we cited earlier (who would certainly require a Kaparah)?
We also ask whether a Hesped is in honor of the Meis or of the relatives. Besides a case where the Meis, or the family, specifically asked not to be eulogized, what other ramifications does this She'eilah have?
Why is there no proof from the fact that ...
... the b'nei Cheis delayed burying Sarah until Avraham returned from the Akeidah to eulogize her, that Hesped must be Kavod ha'Meis?
... Yisrael eulogised Aviyah bar Yeravam (whose entire family were total Resha'im), that Hesped must be Kavod ha'Meis
We ask whether the purpose of burial is to avoid the disgrace of bodies lying in the open rotting and splitting open - a matter of Kavod ha'Chayim (see also Tosfos DH 'Kevurah'), or to attain atonement by being placed deep inside the ground - a matter of Kavod ha'Meis.
The ramifications of this She'eilah - are manifest in a case where the deceased left instructions not to bury him (which will be acceptable according to the second side of the She'eilah, but not according to the first).
We refute the attempt to resolve the She'eilah from ...
... Tzadikim, who surely do not require a Kaparah - by dismissing that as a myth, seeing as the Pasuk in Koheles has already taught us that "There is no Tzadik on earth who does only good and who does not sin".
... the Resha'im of Yirmiyah's prophesy, which we cited earlier (who would certainly require a Kaparah if that was what was required) - because even if the reason is because of Kaparah, they do not deserve atonement. Note, it is unclear how we will explain Yirmiyah's prophecy, even if the reason for burial is because of disgrace.
We also ask whether a Hesped is in honor of the Meis or of the relatives. Besides a case where the Meis, or the family, specifically asked for there not to be a eulogy, this She'eilah also has ramifications of whether we force the heirs to pay the expenses of the eulogies (the eulogizer's fees ... ) - which we will if it is in honor of the deceased.
There is no proof from the fact that ...
... the b'nei Cheis delayed burying Sarah until Avraham returned from the Akeidah to eulogize her, that Hesped must be Kavod ha'Meis - because even it was because of Kavod ha'Chai, Sarah would have wanted them to wait, so that Avraham would be honored through her.
... Yisrael eulogised Aviyah bar Yeravam (whose entire family were total Resha'im), that Hesped must be Kavod ha'Meis - because Aviyah (who was considered a Tzadik in this regard), would have derived benefit from the fact that the other people (who were albeit Resha'im) would be honored through him, even if it was Kavod ha'Chayim.
According to what we just explained, if Hesped is Kavod ha'Chayim, why did they not also eulogize the Resha'im in the time of Yirmiyahu, to give pleasure to the Tzadikim?
Yirmiyah told Tzidkiyah that he would die in peace ... and that they would eulogize him 'Hoy Adon'. What do we try to prove from there?
On what grounds do we refute this proof? What might the Navi have meant to tell Tzidkiyah?
According to what we just explained, even assuming that Hesped is Kavod ha'Chayim, they did not also eulogize the Resha'im in the time of Yirmiyahu, to give pleasure to the Tzadikim - because Tzadikim derive no benefit through the Resha'im.
Yirmiyah told Tzidkiyah that he would die in peace ... and that they would eulogise him 'Hoy Adon' - a proof that Hesped must be Kavod ha'Meis, because if it was Kavod ha'Chayim, what was the point of telling Tzidkiyah about it?
We refute this proof too however - because what the Navi might have been telling him was that Yisrael were destined to be honored through him, in the same way as they were honored through his ancestors when they died (and Tzadikim derive benefit from the fact that people are honored through them).