(a)On what grounds did Rava permit that turnip on Yom-Tov, although nobody had informed him that gentiles had cut it before Yom-Tov (and it may just have detached on Yom-Tov)?
(b)Why did he not suspect that it may have been brought from outside the Techum on Yom-Tov?
(c)Why did he subsequently issue a decree forbidding similar products offered by non-Jews in future?
(a)Rava permitted that turnip on Yom-Tov - because he saw that it was withered, and had evidently been picked before Shabbos.
(b)He was not worried that it may have been brought from outside the Techum on Yom-Tov - because even if it was, whatever is brought from outside the Techum for one Jew, is permitted for another, and how much more so that turnip, which was initially brought in for other gentiles.
(c)But when he saw how, as a result of it, many gentiles began bringing in turnips on behalf of Jews, he issued a decree forbidding turnips which arrived in town under similar circumstances.
(a)Ravina permitted gardeners to smell myrtle-twigs immediately after the termination of the second-day of Yom-Tov, despite the fact that non-Jews had cut them on that day on their behalf. What is the Gemara's initial objection to Ravina's ruling?
(b)What did Rava ultimately rule, and why is he strict in this regard, despite the fact that nowadays we are experts in the calendar, and we know that really, it is the first day of Yom-Tov which is holy, and not the second?
(a)The Gemara initially objected to Ravina's ruling, permitting gardeners to smell myrtle-twigs immediately after the termination of the second-day Yom-Tov (despite the fact that non-Jews had cut them on the second day of Yom-Tov on their behalf, and the second day of Yom-Tov does not require 'Bichedei she'Ya'asu [to wait the time it would take to perform that Melachah after the termination of Shabbos], in his opinion) - on the grounds that it ought to be forbidden, because they were not B'nei Torah (and would come to treat the second day of Galus lightly).
(b)Rava forbade the gardeners to smell the myrtle-twigs (which the non-Jews had cut on their behalf) immediately after the termination of the second-day of Yom-Tov - because in his opinion, even a Melachah that was performed for a Jew on the second day of Yom-Tov, requires 'Bi'chedei she'Ya'asu'.
(a)What is the Gemara referring to, and what does it mean - when it writes 'Zichron Echad Olah le'Kahn u'le'Kahn'?
(b)What is the alternative to that, and what is its reason?
(a)By 'Zikaron Echad Olah le'Kahn u'le'Kahn' - the Gemara means to suggests that perhaps during Musaf of Rosh Hashanah, it is not necessary to mention the Korbanos of Rosh Chodesh, because 'Yom ha'Zikaron' incorporates Rosh Chodesh, inasmuch as the Torah writes (in Beha'aloscha) with regard to Rosh Chodesh "ve'Hayu Lachem le'Zikaron".
(b)Alternatively, since Rosh Chodesh has its own independent Korbanos, it also needs to be mentioned independently.
(a)Rebbi Dosa ben Horkinas in our Mishnah permits the Chazan on Rosh Hashanah to mention Rosh Chodesh conditionally on both days of Rosh Hashanah, using the appropriate text on either day. The Rabbanan disagree. Based on a Beraisa, where the Machlokes is duplicated, only with regard to a regular Rosh Chodesh (which does not coincide with Rosh Hashanah), the Gemara attempts to prove that the Rabbanan argue with Rebbi Dosa on account of the condition. What is their alternative bone of contention?
(b)How then, does the Gemara prove its point?
(c)If that is so, why do they need to argue the same Machlokes twice?
(a)Rebbi Dosa ben Horkinas and the Rabbanan could also be arguing over -whether one mentions Rosh Chodesh at all (conditionally) during the rest of the year (on the two consecutive days which are a Safek), since we are not sure that it is Rosh Chodesh.
(b)The Gemara proves that they must be arguing about whether one makes a condition or not, because if their Machlokes concerned whether or not, to mention Rosh Chodesh, why would the Rabbanan forbid this, even in the case of an ordinary Rosh Chodesh?
(c)Had the Rabbanan and Rebbi Dosa argued only by Rosh Chodesh which is also Rosh Hashanah - we would have said that they confine their Chumra to that case, since making the second day of Yom-Tov conditional will cause people to treat it disrespectfully, because they will think that it is not really Yom-Tov. But that they will perhaps agree with Rebbi Dosa, that making the condition on Rosh Chodesh (where the above suspicion does not apply) is permitted; and conversely, had they argued by Rosh Chodesh only - we would have thought that Rebbi Dosa is lenient only by an ordinary Rosh Chodesh, but not by Rosh Chodesh which coincides with Rosh Hashanah, where he will agree with the Rabbanan, in order to avoid people treating the second day of Yom-Tov disrespectfully.
(a)What causes the Gemara to think that, according to Beis Shamai, if one were to mention Rosh Chodesh in Musaf of Rosh Hashanah, it would be in the form of an independent Berachah?
(b)What is the Gemara trying to prove from here?
(c)How do we attempt to refute this proof?
(d)How do we ultimately prove, from a second Beraisa citing another statement by Beis Shamai, that one does not mention Rosh Chodesh independently of Rosh Hashanah in Musaf of Rosh Hashanah?
(a)Since Beis Shamai holds that, when Rosh Hashanah falls on Shabbos, the Tefilah comprises ten Berachos, including a separate Berachah for Shabbos (not included in that of Rosh Hashanah) - it follows that if one were to mention Rosh Chodesh, it too, would be in the form of an independent Berachah.
(b)The Gemara is trying to prove from here - that, since Beis Shamai require only ten Berachos and not eleven, it must be that Rosh Chodesh is not mentioned independently, because 'Zikaron Echad Olah le'Kahn u'le'Kahn'.
(c)It may well be, counters the Gemara, that in fact, we do mention Rosh Chodesh in Musaf of Rosh Hashanah - only since Rosh Chodesh is always incorporated in the Tefilah of Shabbos (the whole year round) - on Shacharis and Ma'ariv, it is also incorporated in the Berachah of Shabbos in the Musaf of Rosh Hashanah, in which case, there will still be only ten Berachos.
(d)However, the Gemara concludes, in another Beraisa, Beis Shamai specifically preclude Rosh Chodesh from the Berachah of Shabbos, counting it as an eighth Berachah. That being the case, the only reason for Beis Shamai saying that the Musaf Tefilah of Rosh Hashanah comprises ten Berachos and not eleven - is because they hold 'Zikaron Echad Olah le'Kahn u'le'Kahn' (nor do we find that Beis Hillel disagree with this point - which renders this proof conclusive).
(a)Raban Shimon ben Gamliel and Rebbi Yishmael Beno shel Rebbi Yochanan ben Berokah hold of 'Kollel' (regarding incorporating Rosh Chodesh together Shabbos). What does the Tana Kama hold?
(b)At which point in the Tefilah, does one recite 'Ya'aleh ve'Yavo', according to Rebbi Eliezer?
(c)What does the Gemara conclude with regard to mentioning Rosh Chodesh on Rosh Hashanah?
(a)According to the Tana Kama - one mentions Rosh Chodesh in Shacharis and Ma'ariv, when Rosh Chodesh falls on Shabbos, but not during the Berachah, where Shabbos only is mentioned.
(b)According to Rebbi Eliezer - one mentions 'Ya'aleh ve'Yavo' in Hoda'ah ('Modim').
(c)With regard to the mention of Rosh Chodesh on Rosh Hashanah - the Gemara concludes that 'Zikaron Echad Olah li'Sheneihem'.
(a)Why did the Gemara think that perhaps one should not mention 'Shehechiyanu' on Rosh Hashanah and Yom Kippur?
(b)Why is there no proof that one should from Rav Yehudah, who would recite 'Shehechiyanu' even on a new-season pumpkin?
(c)According to Rashi, when does one recite 'Shehechiyanu' over a new fruit?
(a)The Gemara thinks that perhaps one should not mention 'Shehechiyanu' on Rosh Hashanah and Yom Kipur - because they are not called Regalim.
(b)Rav Yehudah would recite 'Shehechiyanu' even on a new-season pumpkin - but that may well have been because 'Shehechiyanu' on a new-season fruit is Reshus (voluntary), which does not prove that one recites a 'Shehechiyanu' on Rosh Hashanah - in the form of an obligation.
(c)According to Rashi, one recites 'Shehechiyanu' upon seeing a new fruit (though this is not the accepted Halachah).
(a)According to Rebbi Eliezer, the Pasuk in Koheles "Ten Chelek le'Shiv'ah, ve'Gam li'Shemonah" refers to Hash-m's choice of Shabbos of the seventh day , and of the eighth day of Bris Milah. How does Rebbi Yehoshua explain the Pasuk, and what does he learn from the word "ve'Gam"?
(b)On what grounds does the Gemara reject the proof from here that Rosh Hashanah and Yom Kippur require a Birchas 'Shehechiyanu'?
(c)How would we explain 'Kol Shiv'ah' if Rebbi Yehoshua was referring to 'Shehechiyanu'? Since when do we recite 'Shehechiyanu' on each day of Yom-Tov?
(d)How does the Gemara attempt to prove from here Rav Nachman's ruling that 'Shehechiyanu' on Yom-Tov may be recited even in the market-place (i.e. without a cup of wine)?
(a)Rebbi Yehoshua interprets the Pasuk "Ten Chelek le'Shiv'ah, ve'Gam li'Shemoneh" - with regard to the seven days of Pesach and the eight days of Succos. "ve'Gam" comes to include Shavu'os, Rosh Hashanah and Yom Kippur.
(b)Perhaps, contends the Gemara - the Pasuk is referring to the obligation to recite the Berachah of 'Mekadesh Yisrael ve'ha'Zemanim' on each of these days, and not to that of 'Shehechiyanu'.
(c)If Rebbi Yehoshua was referring to 'Shehechiyanu' - then 'Kol Shiv'ah would mean that if one failed to recite it on the first day, that he had seven days to compensate that omission, and could recite it on the first of the seven that he remembered.
(d)The Gemara tries to prove from here that 'Shehechiyanu' on Yom-Tov may be recited even in the market-place (i.e. without a cup of wine) - because otherwise i.e. if 'Shehechiyanu' would require wine, who has wine after the first day of Yom-Tov (it seems that in those days, it was normal to run out of wine after the first day of Yom-Tov)?
(a)Even if we are speaking about someone who happened to have wine on the subsequent days, why will we anyway have a clear proof for Rav Nachman from Rebbi Yehoshua, if he is referring to the Berachah of Shehechiyanu?
(b)Why can he not ...
1. ... drink the Kos after reciting 'Shehechiyanu'?
2. ... recite 'Shehechiyanu' and put down the Kos?
3. ... recite 'Shehechiyanu' and give the Kos to a child to drink?
(a)We will have a clear proof for Rav Nachman, from Rebbi Yehoshua, if he is referring to the Berachah of 'Shehechiyanu' - from the fact that he includes Yom Kippur in the obligation - even though it is not possible to drink the wine after the Berachah.
(b)He cannot ...
1. ... drink the Kos after reciting 'Shehechiyanu' - because reciting 'Shehechiyanu' is an automatic acceptance of Yom Kippur, after which, it is forbidden to eat or drink.
2. ... recite 'Shehechiyanu' and put he Kos down - because whenever a Kos is required, one also needs to drink from it.
3. ... recite 'Shehechiyanu' and give the Kos to a child to drink - because when that child grows up, he will get used to the idea of drinking the Kos of Yom Kippur, and continue to so even after he has grown up.
(a)What is the Gemara's conclusion with regard to reciting 'Shehechiyanu' on Rosh Hashanah and Yom Kippur?
(b)Is the Halachah like Rav Nachman? Does 'Shehechiyanu' require a cup of wine?
(a)The Gemara concludes - that one is obligated to recite 'Shehechiyanu' on Rosh Hashanah and Yom Kippur.
(b)We do indeed follow the opinion of Rav Nachman - that 'Shehechiyanu' may be recited even in the market-place - without a cup of wine.