What is the translation of "Shicheis lo Lo"?
Rashi (citing Targum Onkelos): 'They corrupt themselves, and not Him'. 1
Rashi (in the original manuscript) and Rashbam: 'They corrupted themselves, and not anyone else. His children blemished themselves (through idolatry, adultery and murder
What is the translation of "Banav Mumam"?
Rashi #1: 'It is the blemish of His children (Yisrael - and not His).
Rashi #2 (in his original manuscript): They blemished themselves inasmuch as they adopted the title 'his non-children'.
Seforno: The Pasuk translates as 'A crooked and twisted generation', they are not his innocent children; Because their blemish - by the Golden Calf, corrupted Hashem's intentions'. 4
Targum Yonasan: His beloved children were found to be blemished'.
Refer to 32:5:1:5.
Ramban: As in Hoshe'a, 2:25. This is also how Rashi translated "Lo Banav" in his original manuscript.
Ramban: It cannot have emanated from Hashem, because He is perfect (faultless) - as the previous Pasuk stated.
Seforno: As the Torah wrote in Sh'mos, 32:7 "Ki Shicheis Amcha" - where His intention was to make you a Mamleches Kohanim, to create a universal Kidush Hashem - See Seforno - but they ruined that by serving Avodah Zarah.
What is the difference between "Ikeish" and "Pesaltol"?
Rashi: "Ikeish" means 'bent, and "Pesaltol", twisted. 1
Rashi: Like the thread (of Tzitzis) that one winds around the other threads.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that "Ikeish u'Fesaltol" means bent and twisted. How does this apply to people?
Ramban: Bent is the opposite of "Yashar" (straight), and twisted is the opposite of Tzadik. 1
Targum Yonasan: A crooked generation - who changed their behavior, and a twisted one - on whom the order of the world was changed. 2
Rashi writes that they do not corrupt Him, rather, themselves. If so, the first "Lo" should be written with an Aleph, and the latter with a Vav!
Refer to 32:5:1:5.