What is the connection between this Pasuk and the previous Parshah?
Rashbam: After the rebuke of 'Ha'azinu', Moshe blessed the people before ascending the mountain to die.
Seforno: He now fulfilled the purpose for which he initially ascended the mountain, when Hashem showed him the land - as recorded at the end of Ha'azinu. 1
Why does the Parshah begin with the word "ve'Zos ha'B'rachah"?
Ramban (citing the Midrash Rabah): Commenting on the Pasuk in Bereishis 49:28, "ve'Zos asher Diber lahem Avihem" the Midrash cites Ya'akov Avinu, who said to his sons 'A man is destined to come and bless you in the same way; and from the place that I stop (on the word 've'Zos') 1 he will begin. And these Berachos will reach you, Ya'akov added, when you accept the Torah, where it is written "ve'Zos ha'Torah", because the word "ve'Zos" hints at B'rachah, which is equivalent to the Torah - which in turn, is synonymous with the Bris, about which it is written, in Bereishis, 17:10, "Zos B'risi"'.
Hadar Zekenim (Bereishis 49:28): Moshe took his cue from from the Avos; 2 The Torah concluded Yitzchak's B'rachos to Ya'akov with "Vayikra Yitzchak el Ya'akov" (Bereishis 28:1), and began Ya'akovs' B'rachos with "Vayikra Ya'akov" (Bereishis 49:1) and ended them with "ve'Zos asher Diber lahem" (49:28), so Moshe began with "ve'Zos ha'B'rachah. 3
Ramban: In fact, David ha'Melech too, used the word 've'Zos' - in Tehilim, 119:56.
Hadar Zekenim: As the Pasuk writes in Tehilim,"mi'Zekenim Esbonan" Tehilim, 119:100 (Hadar Zekenim):
Hadar Zekenim: Moshe ended with "Ashrecha Yisrael", and David began [Tehilim] with "Ashrei ha'Ish".
Why does the Torah refer to Moshe as "Ish ha'Elokim"?
Ramban: To teach us that his B'rachos would be fulfilled. 1
Da'as Zekenim, Hadar Zekenim (both citing R. Yosef Karo) and Rosh: To teach that he blessed them on Hashem's instructions.
Oznayim la'Torah: A B'rachah is likely to materialize on four conditions: 1. If the one who is blessing loves the one whom he is blessing with all his heart; 2. that he is righteous; 3. that the one who is being blessed is worthy; 4. that it is the right time to bless. Therefore the Torah writes - 1. "asher Beirach Moshe"; 2. "Ish ha'Elokim"; 3. "es B'nei Yisrael; 4. "Lifnei Moso". 2
Ramban: In fact, we also find the title "Ish ha'Elokim" used in connection with other prophets too - since their prophecy stems from a Divine source (See R. Chavel's footnotes. Perhaps that explains why Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan translate "Ish ha'Elokim" as 'Navi Hashem'). See Ramban.
See Oznayim la'Torah.
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) words "Lifnei Moso"?
Rashi #1 (in the original manuscript): Tzadikim tend to issue blessings shortly before their death 1 - due to the principle 'If not now, when!' 2 .
Rashi #2 (in the original manuscript): When the Angel of death came to take Moshe's Neshamah, Moshe bade him wait until after he had blessed the people. 3
Oznayim la'Torah: He blessed them immediately after Hashem had informed him that he would not overturn the decree of his death - even though, as we all know, it was Yisrael's lack of Emunah that caused him to err, and anybody else woud have borne the people a grudge for causing him to lose the right to enter Eretz Yisrael - which he so yearned.
Rashi: Like Yitzchak did. See Toldos, Bereishis, 27:6.
Avos, 1:14.
Da'as Zekenim and Rosh give a similar explanation. Refer to 34:5:151:1. This is difficult however, since the Chachamim have said that Moshe, Aharon and Miriam died with a kiss from Hashem, and not via the Mal'ach ha'Maves?
When exactly, did Moshe bless the people?
