Why does the Torah place this Parshah here?


Rashi #1: Because when Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu told Moshe to give the Bnos Tzelofchad their portion of inheritance, he understood that Hashem was instructing him personally to do so, which in turn, implied that He had cancelled the decree prohibiting him from entering Eretz Yisrael. So Hashem informed him that the decree was still in place.


Rashi #2: Moshe thought that the decree that he not enter Eretz Yisrael had been cancelled 1 , because he had entered the portion of Bnei Gad and Bnei Re'uven. 2


Ramban: To inform him that although Hashem had told him earlier "la'Eleh Techalek ha'Aretz ... ", 3 it would not be through him. 4


Rashi: It can be compared to a king who forbade his son to enter the throne-room. When he entered the outer gate, the son followed him; the hall, the son followed him. But when the son attempted to enter the throne-room, the king told him that from now on, he was forbidden to proceed.


Why does the Parshah appears here and not at the end of Chukas? - See Sifsei Chachamim).




Refer to 27:15:1:1.


Why did Moshe not carry out Hashem's instructions immediately?


Ramban, Moshav Zekenim: Because Hashem did not intend him to. He was merely informing him that he would not be the one to distribute Eretz Yisrael, 1 because he would only merit seeing the land but not entering it. 2


Refer to 27:12:1:3.


Ramban: And the same applies to the command to take Yehoshua (in Pasuk 18) and appoint him leader of Yisrael, which Moshe was to fulfill when the time came. See Or ha'Chayim on Pasuk 21.

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