Why does the Torah place this Parshah here?


Rashi #1: Because when Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu told him to give the B'nos Tz'lofchad their portion of inheritance, he understood that Hashem was instructing him personally to do so, which in turn, implied that He had cancelled the decree prohibiting him from entering Eretz Yisrael. So Hashem disillusioned him by informing him that the decree was still in place.


Rashi #2: He thought that the decree had been cancelled 1 because he had entered the territory of the portion of the b'nei Gad and the b'nei Re'uven. 2


Ramban: To inform him that although Hashem had told him earlier "la'Eileh Techalek ha'Aretz ... ", 3 it would not be through him. 4


Rashi: It can be compared to a king who forbade his son to enter the throne-room. When he entered the outer gate, the king followed him; the hall, the king followed him. But when he attempted to enter the throne-room, he told him that from now on, he was forbidden to proceed.


(It is not clear however, why the Parshah appears here and not at the end of Chukas? - See Sifsei Chachamim).




Refer to 27:15:1:1.


Why did Moshe not carry out Hashem's instructions immediately?


Ramban: Because Hashem did not intend him to. He was merely informing him that he would not be the one to distribute Eretz Yisrael, 1 because he would only merit seeing the land but not entering it. 2


Refer to 27:12:1:3.


Ramban: And the same applies to the command to take Yehoshua (in Pasuk 18) and appoint him leader of Yisrael, which Moshe was to fulfill when the time came. See Or ha'Chayim on Pasuk 21.

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