Why does Moshe begin with "Hashem mi'Sinai Ba" and not with the actual B'rachos?
Seforno: All the Pesukim until "Barzel u'Nechoshes Min'alecha", in Pasuk 25 comprise a Tefilah to Hashem that his B'rachos should take effect. Pasuk 25 commences Moshe's B'rachos to Yisrael, to whim he addressed them. 3
Hadar Zekenim: He mentions Hashem, from the place of His Shechinah. Rosh
Rashi: Nevertheless, he chose a praise that incorporated the praise of Yisrael, as if to say that Yisrael are worthy of the B'rachah that he is about to bestow upon them.
Seforno: Hence the word "Hashem" is a call to Hashem, to whom he is about to speak by Name.
What is "Hashem mi'Sinai Ba" referring to?
Rashi and Targum Yonasan: It is referring to Matan Torah, when Hashem came from Har Sinai to meet Yisrael, 1 when they came to stand under the mountain (like a Chasan goes from the Chupah to meet the Kalah
When did Hashem 'shine upon Yisrael from Se'ir and reveal himself to (or look upon) Yisrael from Har Paran'?
Ramban: The Pasuk is referring to the first stop after Har Sinai, which took place in Midbar Paran, when Yisrael first entered the great and awesome desert 4 - where Hashem initially looked into 5 their needs; and to Se'ir in the fortieth year, 6 which was the first time that Hashem spoke to Moshe after the episode with the Meraglim. 7 That was when Hashem shone His light upon them, when their period of mourning came to an end, and the conquest of Cana'an began - when they defeated Sichon and Og and captured their land. 8
Targum Yonasan: "ve'Zarach" means that 'He shone the Glory of His Shechinah - upon Se'ir and Har Paran. Refer also to 33:2:5:1.
Rashi and Targum Yonasan: Both of whom declined to accept it. See also Ba'al ha'Turim.
It is not clear however, as to why the Torah inverts the order, mentioning Se'ir before Har Paran?
Bava Basra 121a: The Dibur did not come to Moshe until after the death of all those decreed to die in the Midbar. Rashi in 2:16, says that Hashem spoke to him with va'Yomer, but not with Dibur. It seems that the Ramban agrees. Just before this, he implied that Hashem spoke with Moshe all 40 years (refer to 33:3:3:2*). Also, he did not comment on Rashi (2:16). Refer to 2:16:151:1-4 -PF)
Why did Hashem appear to Yisrael from different directions?
Rashi (in Ha'azinu): He did that as if to split-up His revelation to them as it were, in order not to come across too hard on them. 1
What does "ve'Asa me'Riv'vos Kodesh" mean?
Rashi, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It means that Hashem came accompanied by (some of 1 the
Rashi: 'Not all of them and not even most of them - as human kings tend to do, to display all of their wealth and glory on their wedding day'.
Ramban: As the Pasuk writes in Tehilim, 88:18. Refer to Bamidbar, 10:36:3:1. The Ramban queries this explanation however, bearing in mind that the Pasuk goes on state "mi'Yemino Eshdas lamo", implying that the Torah came from Hashem directly and not from the angels.
What are the connotations of "mi'Yemino"?
Rashi, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: The Torah 'which He wrote with His Right Hand'.
Seforno: The Torah 'which He took from the right-hand side of the Kodesh' - meaning that it was written with a clear script (be'Aspaklarya ha'Me'irah).
What is the "Eishdas" that Hashem gave to Yisrael?
Rashi, Ramban #1: It refers to the Torah - a combination of the two words 'Eish' and 'Das', meaning a law of fire, 1 and He now gave to them the writing of His Right Hand.
Ramban #2: It is two words - meaning that Hashem showed Yisrael the upper fire 2 and let them hear the Torah.
Ramban #3 (according to Kabalah): The fire, which is the Torah, came from His Right Hand, because Midas ha'Din incorporates Midas ha'Rachamim'.
Seforno: 'The Kodesh of the law of fire (the deeper interpretation of Torah) came to them from various locations (Se'ir and Paran) - from the profusion of the right-hand side of Kedushah'. 3
Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: He gave them the Torah (which He took) from (a flame of
Ramban: As if it had written 'Das Eish'. The Torah wrote above (5:21) that we heard "mi'Toch ha'Eish". Rashi (in Tehilim, 10:10): This is one of fiteen places in the Torah where one word is read as two.
Seforno: Because the Torah was given with a clear vision -like looking through a clear glass.
Why does the Pasuk refer to the Torah as "Eishdas"?
Rashi #1: Because the Torah had been lying before Him from time immemorial, white fire upon black fire. 1
Rashi #2 (citing Targum Onkelos) and Rashbam: Because Hashem gave them the Torah (the writing of His Right Hand) from the fire (since He spoke to Yisrael from the fire - Rashbam). 2
Ramban and Seforno: Refer to 33:2:7:1-4.
What is Moshe coming to teach us with all this?
Ramban and Seforno: Moshe is coming to teach us that, after Eisav and Yishmael declined to accept the Torah 1 , Hashem shone His Face upon Yisrael and gave them the Torah 'with His Right Hand, His (strong) Arm and with the Light of His Countenance, because He favored them'. 2 This is to emphasize the great merit ofYisrael, who accepted the Torah after all the other nations rejected it. 3
What is the significance of "mi'Yemino"?
Divrei Eliyahu: The other nations's languages are from left to right hand. When they asked, what is written in the Torah, Hashem answered them matters on the left Lu'ach
Devarim Rabah (Eikev DH 'me'Eimasai'): To Amon and Mo'av He quoted "Do not commit adultery!"
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that Hashem came to give the Torah to Yisrael, after offering it to Eisav and Yishmael. Why did the Torah allude specifically to them? Why did Hashem not offer the Torah to the other nations?