Why does "Vayikra" begin with a 'Vav'? What is the connection between the beginning of Seifer Vayikra and the end of Seifer Sh'mos?
Ramban #1 (in the introduction): Since Seifer Sh'mos concluded with the Ohel Mo'ed and the Kavod of Hashem that filled it, Seifer Vayikra discusses the Korbanos that were sacrificed in it and how to guard it. 1
Ramban #2: Refer to Sh'mos 40:35:2:1.
Rashbam and Seforno: Refer to 1:1:3:4.
Targum Yonasan: Refer to 1:1:3:5.
See Ramban, who goes on to explain how the bulk of the Seifer is connected to Korbanos in one way or another (which explains why it is referred to as 'Sifra u'Levi'im'). See also Seforno (on Pasuk 2), who classifies the Korbanos and discusses various aspects concerning them.
Why is the 'Alef' in "Vayikra" small?
Moshav Zekenim and Ba'al ha'Turim: Because Moshe, in his humility, did not want to write "Vayikra" but "Vayikar", 1 as if Hashem had not spoken to him openly, but in a dream, like to Bil'am. (Rosh - Moshe did not want the Seifer to begin with himself, that Hashem called to him.) Hashem agreed that he write the 'Alef' small. 2
Moshav Zekenim: Hashem said, no one was worthy that Torah be given to him after a thousand generations 3 , other than you, and you belittle yourself?! When Aleph is spelled out, it is like Elef.
Refer also to 1:1:5:1. Toras Moshe citing Yalkut Reuveni and Sh'mos Rabah 47:6 - from the ink saved, he merited that his face radiated. Refer to Sh'mos 34:29:3:5*.
Rosh: In order that generations will know that it hurt Moshe to write this. (Which of course, highlights his greatness in the eyes of those who read it. Refer also to Sh'mos 40:21:1:1*).
When ?Alef? spelled out, it makees ?Elef?
What is the significance of the fact that Hashem called Moshe before speaking to him?
Rashi: It is a sign of esteem. In fact, whenever Hashem spoke to Moshe, 1 He always 2 called him first - using the expression "Vayikra" 3
Ramban #1: Refer to Sh'mos 40:35:2:1.
Ramban #2: Even though Hashem had told Moshe that He would speak to him from the lid of the Aron, 4 Moshe was afraid even to enter the Mishkan 5 until he was called.
Rashbam, Hadar Zekenim, Seforno and Da'as Zekenim (citing Midrash Tanchuma): Since Moshe was unable to enter the Mishkan on account of the Cloud, Hashem called him from the Ohel Mo'ed 6 to enter, on the eighth day of the Milu'im 7
Targum Yonasan: Because, when Moshe finished setting up the Mishkan, he figured that, if he was not permitted to ascend Har Sinai, which was only sanctified temporarily, before Hashem spoke to him, how much more so the Mishkan, which was anointed permanently, and whose Kedushah was permanent.
Moshav Zekenim #1 (citing Chagigah 14a): From every utterance that comes out of Hashem's mouth, an angel is created to summon the one He wants to speak to 8 - similar to the Burning Bush, where Moshe saw an angel, and Hashem called to him. 9
Moshav Zekenim #2 (citing R. Eliezer of Garmaiza): We read Vayikra like Viykar (honor). Nevu'ah is called Yekar - "u'Davar Hashem Hayah Yakar" (Shmuel 1 13:1).
Yoma, 4b: To teach us that one should not (out of the blue) speak to one's friend without first calling to him. 10
Irrespective of whether the term used is 'Dibur; 'Amirah' or 'Tzivuy' (Rashi).
Oznayim la'Torah: Even though the Torah only records it three times ? by the Burning Bush (Sh'mos, 3:4), at Har Sinai (Yisro, Sh'mos, 19:3) and here.
Rashi: In fact, this is the Lashon that the Mal'achim use ? "Vekara Zeh el Zeh". Refer also to 1;1:5:1.
The words "me'Ohel Mo'ed" refer (not to "Vayedaber", but) to "Vayikra" - similar to Sh'mos 19:3 and Bamidbar 7:89 (Ramban and Rashbam).
Refer to Sh'mos, 40:34:1:2** and to Vayikra, 1:1:11:2*.
In Sh'mos 25:22.
On the first day of the Milu'im (See Rav Chavel's footnotes). Alternatively, says the Ramban, Moshe did not yet know that Hashem would speak with him from inside the Mishkan (seeing as the Shechinah had not yet descended) - and he was merely awaiting permission to enter out of respect. In any event, from the time that Hashem granted him permission to enter, he was permitted - even the Kodesh Kodshim (Ramban, citing the Sifra).
Moshav Zekenim: The Heavenly Kingdom is like kingdom on earth, where kings send someone a messenger when he wants to speak with him.
See Sh'mos 3:2 & 4.
See Torah Temimah, note 1.
Why does the Torah insert "Vayikra" specifically before "Va'yedaber"?
Rashi: To teach us that it was only before a new Dibur that Hashem called Moshe, but not after each break, 1 whose purpose was to give him a chance to reflect on what he had just learned.
See Sifsei Chachamim.
Why does the Torah here use the word "Vayikra" with regard to Moshe, and "Vayikar" (in Bamidbar 23:4) with regard to Bil'am?
Rashi: Because, whereas "Vayikra" is an expression of esteem, which the angels use, 1 whereas va'Yikar" implies a chance occurrence, an expression of Tum'ah. 2 It is the expression that Hashem uses when addressing Nochri prophets, such as Bil'am. 3
Hadar Zekenim and Moshav Zekenim: Hashem called Moshe to come to Him, but He went to Bil'am - If one tells the king that a leper is waiting at the gate, the king will go out to speak to him, to prevent him from entering the royal palace! If a nobleman is waiting, the king calls him and speaks with him in his palace.
As we find in Yeshayah, 6:3 "Vekara Zeh el Zeh" (Rashi).
Like "Mikre Laylah" - Devarim 23:11 (a Lashon of 'Keri').
See Bamidbar 23:4 (Rashi)
Why does the Torah write "Vayikra el Moshe" and not "le'Moshe" or "es Moshe"?
Rashi and Moshav Zekenim (citing R. Yeshayah in Yoma 4b): To teach us that only he heard Hashem's Voice, 1 but nobody else heard it 2 (though they did hear Hashem call him - Moshav Zekenim, Ibid.). 3
Oznayim la'Torah: This is because, on the one occasion that the people heard the Voice of Hashem, they complained that they could not take it and asked Moshe to liaise between Hashem and them - See Devarim, 5:22.
Later, in DH 'Eilav', Rashi comments that Yisrael did not hear Hashem call Moshe becaue the Torah writes "Kol lo", "Kol eilav" (See Sifsei Chachamim, note 20).
Why does the Torah mention Moshe's name before that of Hashem?
Oznayim la'Torah: It deliberately places Moshe's name close to the small 'Alef' in Vayikra to demonstrate that it was Moshe who wrote the 'Alef' small, and not Hashem, in whose Eyes it ought to have been written large.
Why does the Torah insert the word "Hashem" before "Vayedaber" and not after "Vayikra"?
Oznayim la'Torah (based on the Zohar): Because whereas He spoke to Hashem directly, He called him via the Mal'ach ha'Beris. 1 ?
What are the implications of the word "Vayedaber Hashem Eilav"?
Rashi: It implies that Hashem spoke specifically to Moshe, but not to Aharon. 1
Rashi (citing R. Yehudah): On thirteen occasions the Torah writes that Hashem spoke "to Moshe and to Aharon", and correspondingly, it writes thirteen preclusions, to preclude Aharon from receiving the Dibur directly ? three of them at the end of Naso (Refer to 7:89:3:1) ? "Ledaber Ito", "Midaber eilav" and "Vayedaber eilav"; all of them are listed in the Sifra.
From where exactly did Hashem's Voice emanate?
Rashi: It emanated from on the lid of the Aron, from between the two K'ruvim. 1
Since Moshe was standing outside the Ohel Mo'ed when Hashem spoke to him from the lid of the Aron, how can it be that nobody else could hear it?
Rashi: Because me'Ohel Mo'ed implies that the Voice stopped at the entrance of the Ohel Mo'ed in order to prevent anybody other than Moshe from hearing it. 1
Rashi: In spite of the fact that the Pasuk at the end of Naso refers to it as "the Voice", alluding to the powerful voice described in Tehilim, 29:4 & 5. Refer also to 7:89:3:1**.
What are the connotations of the word "Leimor"?
Rashi #1: Hashem instructed Moshe to boost Yisrael's spirits 1 by telling them that it is on their account that He was speaking with him. 2
Rashi #2: Hashem was telling Moshe 'Tell My words to Yisrael, and answer Me as to whether or not they accept them'.
Rashbam and Moshav Zekenim #1: It is a manner of speech (to say both "va'Yedaber" and "Leimor"). 3
Yoma 4a: It teaches us that if Reuven tells something to Shimon, Shimon is forbidden to pass on the information to others unless Reuven authorizes him to do so. 4
Moshav Zekenim: This will not explain the Pasuk "va'Yedaber Hashem el No'ach Leimor" - in Bereishis 8:15?
Proof of this lies in the fact that following the episode of the Meraglim, when Yisrael were ostracized, Hashem did not speak with Moshe using the personal term of 'Dibur', until all of that generation had died. See Devarim, 2:16, 17 (Rashi).
Rashbam: See for example, Bereishis 8:15 and Bamidbar 8:2.
See Torah Temimah, note 2, who elaborates.
When did Hashem call Moshe and speak to him?
Moshav Zekenim #1 (in Sh'mos 40:2): All the Parshiyos from here until "ba'Yom ha'Shemini" (9:1) were said during the seven days of the Milu'im, according to the opinion that the Torah is written in order.
Rashbam, Seforno and Moshav Zekenim #2 (in Sh'mos 40:2, citing Midrash Chazis): This occurred on the eighth day of the Milu'im; 1 the Torah is not in order. Moshe was unable to enter the Mishkan, since the Cloud and the Shechinah had entered it to sanctify it. 2 Subsequently, the Shechinah moved to the lid of the Aron, and Moshe was able to enter the Mishkan without express permission, 3 but not the Kodesh Kodshim.
Seforno: Whenever Hashem wanted to speak with Moshe, He spoke with him from within the Cloud, like we find at Har Sinai - See Sh'mos 24:16.
Seforno: As the Torah stated in Sh'mos 29:43, 44, and as will be repeated later in the first Beis ha'Mikdash - See Melachim 1, 8:11.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that Hashem's Voice emanated from between the two Keruvim on the lid of the Aron. But Ohel Mo'ed implies outside the Paroches?
Rashi: Refer to Sh'mos 25:22:1:1.
Rashi writes that "Vayikra" is an expression of esteem, which the angels use. It would have been preferable to have used an expression of Dibur, which Hashem uses constantly?
Moshav Zekenim: "Vayikra" is preferable, since it incorporates all utterances and speech.
Rashi writes that "Kol Lo" teaches that only Moshe heard Hashem's Voice. But there is no such Pasuk?
Hadar Zekenim: It should have said "va'Yedaber Lo", and we would explain like 'Alav', and it does not reveal to whom He spoke. It says "Eilav" to teach that only Moshe heard.
Moshav Zekenim: After the Eigel, Yisrael were excommunicated and Moshe spoke with Hashem two thousand Amos away - "ve'Kara Lo Ohel Mo'ed" (Sh'mos 33:7). Clearly Yisrael did not hear Hashem then. Also here, when the Mishkan dwelt with Yisrael, "Eilav" teaches us that only Moshe heard.
Moshav Zekenim citing Rashi (in Yoma 4b): Bamidbar 7:89 could have said 'ha'Kol Medaber Lo.' Rather, it says "ha'Kol Medaber Eilav" to teach us that only Moshe heard.
Rashi writes that Hashem spoke specifically to Moshe. "le'Aharon" means that Moshe should tell Aharon. If so, the entire Torah ought to say "el Moshe el B'nei Yisrael", since Hashem told Moshe to tell B'nei Yisrael"?
Hadar Zekenim #1: Hashem spoke to Moshe, but Aharon was able to hear. 1
Hadar Zekenim #2 (citing Seifer ha'Gan): If not for the exclusions, I would say that Hashem spoke to both of them. The exclusions teach that only Moshe heard, but also Aharon was a Shali'ach for the matter.
Hadar Zekenim: This is difficult, for we must delete from the text in Sifra 'to tell Aharon'!
Rashi writes that exclusions teach that Hashem spoke only to Moshe, and not to Aharon. How will we reconcile this with Rashi in Sh'mos, 12:1, who says that Hashem included Aharon in the Dibur of the first Mitzvah?
Riva: Before the Mishkan was erected, Hashem spoke to both of them. After it was erected, He spoke only with Moshe, except for for matters that pertain to Aharon, e.g. the Isur of serving after drinking wine or with long hair. Some distinguish between before and after Matan Torah.
Hadar Zekenim (citing Seifer ha'Gan): If not for the exclusions, I would say that Hashem spoke to both of them. The exclusions teach that only Moshe heard, but also Aharon was a Shali'ach for the matter.
Rashi writes that whenever Hashem spoke to Moshe, He always called him first with "Vayikra". The Gemara in Yoma 4b, learns from here that one should call one's friend before speaking to him. But at the beginning of Tetzaveh and Matos, Hashem spoke to Moshe without calling him?
Rosh: "Vayikra" here teaches that He always called to him - even where the Torah does not specifically say so.
