How can we reconcile the Pasuk here, which states that Moshe was able to enter the Mishkan, with the Pasuk at the end of Pikudei "ve'Lo Yachol Moshe Lavo el Ohel Mo'ed"?
Rashi: Refer to Sh'mos, 40:35:1:1.
Why does the Pasuk need to inform us where Moshe was standing and that the Voice emanated from between the two Keruvim?
Rashi: To dispel the discrepancy between the Pasuk 1 which writes that Hashem spoke with Moshe from the Ohel Mo'ed, implying that he was standing outside, and the Pasuk 2 where Hashem informed him that He would speak with him from on the lid of the Aron. The current Pasuk therefore teaches us that Hashem's Voice descended from Heaven to between the two Keruvim on the lid of the Aron, from where it moved to the Ohel Mo'ed where Moshe was standing, and nobody else who was standing outside could hear it.
Bechor Shor: When Moshe was outside, it seemed to him that the voice came from the Ohel Mo'ed; when he was inside, he heard it from between the Keruvim. This is normal; Someone who is outside a house and hears a voice coming from it cannot tell from where it comes. 4
What is the significance of the 'Hey' in "ha'Kol"?
Seforno: The Pasuk is coming to stress that, in spite of the contrast between this Chanukas ha'Mizbe'ach and that of Shlomo ha'Melech, 3 when Moshe came to the Ohel Mo'ed, he heard the same Voice of Hashem 4 that he heard before they worshipped the Golden Calf. 5
Which would explain why nobody outside the Ohel Mo'ed could hear it - as the Pasuk implies.
Rashi: And that nobody else could hear because it stopped (miraculously) at the entrance of the Ohel Mo'ed.
Something that they did not merit in the first Beis-Hamikdash and certainly not in the second, where no prophet came to receive his prophecies there.
Because the inauguration and those who were involved with it found favor in the Eyes of Hashem, and because Moshe was their leader.
Why does the Torah write "Midaber", punctuated with a 'Chirik'?
Rashi: "Midaber" means that Hashem was speaking to Himself, 1 and Moshe overheard it.
Rashi: As if it had written 'Misdaber', as it is Kavod for Hashem to speak in this manner about Himself.
Why does the Torah insert the three exclusions "Ledaber Ito", "Midaber Eilav" and "Vayedaber Eilav"?
Rashi: To prelude Aharon from the Dibur. Refer to Vayikra, 1:1:7:1*.
Moshav Zekeinim citing R. Yehudah ha'Chasid: This hints that the Voice went through seven places until it reached Moshe - from Shechinah to Chayos to Mal'ach to Ohel Mo'ed to Aron to Luchos to Kapores to K'ruv. There were holes in the Aron (presumably, he means the Kapores - PF) in line with the Keruvim above.
Why does it not say explicitly that He spoke with Moshe?