hebrew
1)

Why does "Vayikra" begin with a 'Vav'? What is the connection between the beginning of Sefer Vayikra and the end of Sefer Shemos?

1.

Ramban #1 (Hakdamah): Since Sefer Shemos concluded with the Ohel Mo'ed and the Kavod of Hashem that filled it, Sefer Vayikra discusses the Korbanos that were sacrificed in it and how to guard it. 1

2.

Ramban #2: Refer to Shemos 40:35:2:1.

3.

Rashbam and Seforno: Refer to 1:1:3:4.

4.

Targum Yonasan: Refer to 1:1:3:5.


1

See Ramban, who goes on to explain how the bulk of the Sefer is connected to Korbanos in one way or another (which explains why it is referred to as 'Toras Kohanim u'Levi'im'). See also Seforno (on Pasuk 2), who classifies the Korbanos and discusses various aspects concerning them.

2)

Why is the 'Alef' in "va'Yikra" small?

1.

Moshav Zekenim, Ba'al ha'Turim: Because Moshe, in his humility, did not want to write "va'Yikra", rather, "Vayikar", 1 as if Hashem had not spoken to him openly, but in a dream, like to Bil'am. (Rosh - Moshe did not want the Sefer to begin with him, that Hashem called to him.) Hashem agreed that he write the 'Alef' small. 2

2.

Moshav Zekenim: Hashem said, no one was worthy that Torah be given to him after 1000 generations, other than you, and you belittle yourself?! When Aleph is spelled out, it is like Elef.


1

Refer also to 1:1:5:1. Toras Moshe, from Yalkut Reuveni and Shemos Rabah 47:6 - from the ink saved, he merited that his face radiate. Refer to Shemos 34:29:3:5*.

2

Rosh: In order that generations will know that it hurt Moshe to write this. (Which of course, highlights his greatness in the eyes of those who read it. Refer also to Shemos 40:21:1:1*. - EC)

3)

What is the significance of the fact that Hashem called Moshe before speaking to him?

1.

Rashi: It is a sign of dearness. In fact, whenever Hashem spoke to Moshe, 1 He always called him first using the expression "va'Yikra. 2

2.

Ramban #1: Refer to Shemos 40:35:2:1.

3.

Ramban #2: Hashem having told Moshe that He would speak to him from the lid of the Aron, 3 Moshe was afraid even to enter the Mishkan 4 until he was called.

4.

Rashbam, Hadar Zekenim, Seforno, Da'as Zekenim citing Tanchuma: Since Moshe was unable to enter the Mishkan on account of the Cloud, Hashem called him from the Ohel Mo'ed 5 to enter, on the eighth day of the Milu'im 6

5.

Targum Yonasan: Because, when Moshe finished setting up the Mishkan, he figured that, if he was not permitted to ascend Har Sinai, which was only sanctified temporarily, before Hashem spoke to him, how much more so the Mishkan, which was anointed permanently, and whose Kedushah was permanent.

6.

Moshav Zekenim (from Chagigah 14a): From every utterance that comes out of Hashem's mouth, an angel is created to call to the one He wants to speak to. The Higher Kingdom is like lower kingdoms; kings send to someone before speaking with him. We find that Moshe saw an angel in the burning bush, and Hashem called to him (Shemos 3:2,4).

7.

Moshav Zekenim citing R. Eliezer of Garmaiza: We read va'Yikra like Viykar (honor). Nevu'ah is called Yekar - "u'Davar Hashem Hayah Yakar" (Shmuel 1:13:1).


1

Irrespective of whether the term used is 'Dibur; 'Amirah' or 'Tzivuy' (Rashi).

2

Even though the Torah does not record it.

3

The words "me'Ohel Mo'ed" refer (not to "Vayedaber", but) to "va'Yikra" - similar to Shemos 19:3 and Bamidbar 7:89 (Ramban and Rashbam).

6

On the first day of the Milu'im (See Rav Chavel's footnotes). Alternatively, says the Ramban, Moshe did not yet know that Hashem would speak with him from inside the Mishkan (seeing as the Shechinah had not yet descended) - and he was merely awaiting permission to enter out of respect. In any event, from the time that Hashem granted him permission to enter, he was permitted even the Kodesh Kodshim Ramban, citing Toras Kohanim, va'Yikra 1:6).

4)

Why does the Torah insert "va'Yikra" exclusively before "Va'yedaber"?

1.

Rashi: To teach us that it was only before a new Dibur that Hashem called Moshe, but not after each break, 1 whose purpose was to give him a chance to reflect on what he had just learned.


1

See Sifsei Chachamim.

5)

Why does the Torah here use the word "va'Yikra" with regard to Moshe, and "va'Yikar" (in Bamidbar 23:4) with regard to Bil'am?

1.

Rashi: Because, whereas "va'Yikra" is an expression of dearness, which the angels use, 1 " va'Yikar" implies a chance occurrence, an expression of Tum'ah. 2 It is the expression that Hashem uses when addressing Nochri prophets, such as Bil'am. 3

2.

Hadar Zekenim, Moshav Zekenim: Hashem called Moshe to come to him, but He went to Bil'am. If they tell the king that a leper is at the gate, the king will go to him, lest he enter! If a noble comes, he calls him and speaks with him in his palace.


1

As we find in Yeshayah, 6:3 (Rashi).

2

Like "Mikre Laylah" (Devarim 23:11),, 'Keri'.

3

See Bamidbar 23:4 (Rashi)

6)

Why does it write "El Moshe" rather than "le'Moshe" or "Es Moshe"?

1.

Rashi: To teach us that only he heard Hashem's Voice, and nobody else heard it.

2.

Moshav Zekenim citing R. Yeshayah: In Yuma 4b 1 , it says that all heard Hashem call to him, just they did not hear what He spoke to him!


1

According to one answer there. According to Maharsha there, when it says "va'Yikra" Yisrael heard, but not when it says only va'Ydaber. (PF)

7)

What can we extrapolate from the word "Eilav"?

1.

Rashi: It implies that Hashem spoke specifically to Moshe and not to Aharon. 1


1

Rashi (citing R. Yehudah): On thirteen occasions the Torah writes that Hashem spoke "to MOshe and to Aharon", and correspondingly, it writes thirteen preclusions, tp preclude Aharon from receiving the Dibur directly

8)

And what can we extrapolate from the words "me'Ohel Mo'ed"?

1.

Rashi: It implies that the Voice stopped at the entrance of the Ohel Mo'ed and that nobody else other than Moshe could hear it. 1


1

In spite of the fact that the Pasuk at the end of Naso refers to it as "the Voice", alluding to the powerful voice described in Tehilim, 29:4 & 5 (Rashi). Refer also to 7:89:3:1**.

9)

From where exactly did Hashem's Voice emanate?

1.

Rashi: It emanated from on the lid of the Aron, from between the two Keruvim. 1


1

Refer to 7:89:3:2.

10)

Rashi writes that Hashem's Voice emanated from between the two Keruvim on the lid of the Aron. Ohel Mo'ed connotes outside the Paroches!

1.

Rashi: Refer to Shemos 25:22:1:1.

11)

Did others hear Hashem calling to Moshe?

1.

Rashi (from Yuma 4b): "Kol Lo" teaches that only he heard Hashem's Voice.

2.

Moshav Zekenim citing R. Yeshayah: In Yuma 4b, it says that all heard Hashem call to him, just they did not hear what He spoke to him!

12)

What are the connotations of the word "Leimor"?

1.

Rashi #1: Hashem instructed Moshe to boost Yisrael's spirits 1 by telling them that it is on their account that He was speaking with him. 2

2.

Rashbam, Moshav Zekenim #1: It is a manner of speech (to say both "va'Yedaber" and "Leimor"). 3

3.

Rashi #2: Tell My words to Yisrael, and answer Me, whether or not they accept them.

4.

Moshav Zekenim #2: Tell Yisrael about Avodas ha'Kohanim, and also you (Moshe) learn them. Moshe thought that he need not engage in Torah any more.

5.

Moshav Zekenim #3: Even though Yisrael received the Torah at Sinai, they were not punished for it until it was explained to Yisrael in the Ohel Mo'ed. However, they were punished for the Egel even before this.

6.

Moshav Zekenim #4 (from Yuma 4a): One who tells something to his friend, he is forbidden to tell another until his friend tells him "Lech Emor".


1

Moshav Zekenim: This does not explain "va'Ydaber Hashem El No'ach Leimor" (Bereishis 8:15)! Rather, we must say that it is a manner of speech.

2

Proof of this lies in the fact that following the episode of the Meraglim, when Yisrael were ostracized, Hashem did not speak with Moshe using the personal term of 'Dibur', until all of that generation had died (See Devarim, 2:16, 17 [Rashi]).

3

Rashbam: See for example, Bereishis 8:15 and Bamidbar 8:2.

13)

When did this occur?

1.

Moshav Zekenim (Shemos 40:2): All the Parshiyos from here until "ba'Yom ha'Shemini" (9:1) were said during the seven days of the Milu'im, according to the opinion that the Torah is in order.

2.

Moshav Zekenim (Shemos 40:2, citing Midrash Chazis), Rashbam and Seforno: This occurred on the eighth day of the Milu'im; 1 the Torah is not in order. Moshe was unable to enter the Mishkan, since the Cloud and the Shechinah had entered it to sanctify it. 2 Subsequently, the Shechinah moved to the lid of the Aron, and Moshe was able to enter the Mishkan without express permission, 3 but not the Kodesh Kodshim.


1

Though whenever Hashem wanted to speak with Moshe, He spoke with him from within the Cloud, like we find at Har Sinai (See Shemos 24:16 [Seforno]).

2

As the Torah stated in Shemos 29:43, 44, and as will be repeated later in the first Beis ha'Mikdash (See Melachim 1, 8:11 [Seforno]).

3

Refer to 1:1:3:4.

14)

Rashi writes that va'Yikra is an expression of dearness, which the angels use. It would be better to use an expression of Dibur, which Hashem used constantly!

1.

Moshav Zekenim: Va'Yikra is preferable, for all utterances and speech are included in it. Therefore, Hashem put it first.

15)

Rashi writes that "Kol Lo" teaches that only he heard Hashem's Voice. There is no such verse!

1.

Hadar Zekenim: It should have said "va'Ydaber Lo", and we would explain like 'Alav', and it does not reveal to whom He spoke. It says "Elav" to teach that only Moshe heard.

2.

Moshav Zekenim: After the Egel, Yisrael were excommunicated and Moshe spoke with Hashem 2000 Amos away - "v'Kara Lo Ohel Mo'ed" (Shemos 33:7). Clearly Yisrael did not hear Hashem then. Also here, when the Mishkan was amidst Yisrael, "Elav" teaches that only Moshe heard.

3.

Moshav Zekenim citing Rashi (Yuma 4b): Bamidbar 7:89 could have said 'ha'Kol Medaber Lo.' Rather, it says "ha'Kol Medaber Elav" to teach that only Moshe heard.

16)

Rashi writes that the Voice was the powerful Voice (Tehilim, 29:4,5). If so, why did no one else hear it?

1.

Rosh: Hashem made a conduit for the Voice to go only to Moshe.

17)

Rashi writes that Hashem spoke specifically to Moshe. "L'Aharon" means that Moshe should tell Aharon. If so, the entire Torah should say "El Moshe El Bnei Yisrael", for .He told Moshe to tell Bnei Yisrael"!

1.

Hadar Zekenim: Hashem spoke to Moshe, but Aharon was able to hear. 1

2.

Hadar Zekenim citing Sefer ha'Gan: If not for the exclusions, I would say that Hashem spoke to both of them. The exclusions teach that only Moshe heard, but also Aharon was a Shali'ach for the matter.


1

Hadar Zekenim: This is difficult, for we must delete from the text in Sifra 'to tell Aharon'!

18)

Rashi writes that exclusions teach that Hashem spoke only to Moshe, and not to Aharon. In Shemos (12:1), Rashi writes that Hashem included Aharon in the Dibur of the first Mitzvah!

1.

Riva: Before the Mishkan was erected, Hashem spoke to both of them. After it was erected, He spoke only with Moshe, except for for matters that pertain to Aharon, e.g. the Isur of serving after drinking wine or with long hair. Some distinguish between before and after Matan Torah.

2.

Hadar Zekenim citing Sefer ha'Gan: If not for the exclusions, I would say that Hashem spoke to both of them. The exclusions teach that only Moshe heard, but also Aharon was a Shali'ach for the matter.

19)

Rashi writes that whenever Hashem spoke to Moshe, He always called him first with "va'Yikra". Yuma 4b learns from here that one should call his friend before speaking to him. At the beginning of Tetzaveh and Matos, Hashem did not call to Moshe!

1.

Rosh: "Va'Yikra" here teaches that He always called to him.

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