1)
(a)With which five species of grain can one fulfill one's obligation of eating Matzah on Pesach?
(b)Why can a Yisrael not fulfill his obligation with Terumah and Chalah?
(c)May one fulfill one's obligation with bread of a Todah or wafers of a Nazir ...
1. ... that have been declared Hekdesh?
2. ... that have not been declared Hekdesh, but which one baked in order to bring with his own Todah?
3. ... that have not been declared Hekdesh, and which one baked in order to sell to the public?
1)
(a)One can fulfill one's obligation of eating Matzah on Pesach with wheat, barley, rye, oats and spelt.
(b)A Yisrael cannot fulfill his obligation with Terumah and Chalah - because of the Pasuk "Lo Sochal Alav Chametz, Shiv'as Yamim Tochal Alav Matzos", from which Chazal derive that one is only Yotzei with a species where the only Isur to watch out for is Chametz, but not when there is any other Isur involved. (According to Tosfos Rebbi Akiva Eiger, the real reason is because it is a 'Mitzvah ha'Ba'ah ba'Aveirah'.)
(c)
1. One cannot fulfill one's obligation with bread of a Todah or wafers of a Nazir that have been declared Hekdesh;
2. Nor with bread of a Todah or wafers of a Nazir that have not been declared Hekdesh, but which one baked in order to bring with his own Todah.
3. One can however, fulfill one's obligation with bread of a Todah or wafers of a Nazir that have not been declared Hekdesh, and which he baked in order to sell to the public.
2)
(a)What are the ramifications of the statement by the Tana in the Beraisa, which considers spelt a kind of wheat, and oats and rye a kind of barley?
(b)What does Tana d'Bei Rebbi Yishmael learn from the Hekesh in the Pasuk in Re'eh "Lo Sochal Alav Chametz, Shiv'as Yamim Tochal Alav Matzos"?
(c)Which species does this Hekesh preclude from the Mitzvah?
(d)Can we infer from here that a dough of rice and millet can never rise?
2)
(a)When the Tana in the Beraisa considers spelt a kind of wheat, and oats and rye a kind of barley - he means that, when separating Terumah, one may separate spelt for wheat and vice-versa, and oats and rye for barley and vice-versa.
(b)Tana d'Bei Rebbi Yishmael learns from the Hekesh in the Pasuk in Re'eh "Lo Sochal Alav Chametz, Shiv'as Yamim Tochal Alav Matzos" - that one can only fulfill the Mitzvah of Matzah with species which can become Chametz.
(c)This Hekesh comes to preclude rice and millet from the Mitzvah of Matzah.
(d)A dough of rice and millet can rise, but then it becomes smelly.
3)
(a)Rebbi Yochanan ben Nuri in a Beraisa forbids rice and millet, because it is close to becoming Chametz. Is he referring to the Din of Chametz on Pesach or to that of a flour-offering, which is not allowed to become Chametz?
(b)Does Rebbi Yochanan ben Nuri mean that it becomes real Chametz quickly, or that it is close to becoming Chametz, but not real Chametz?
(c)What are the two ramifications of this She'eilah?
(d)What Does Rebbi Yochanan ben Nuri say about 'Kalnisa' (fennel flower, or the rye-grass that is found among the poppies)?
3)
(a)When Rebbi Yochanan ben Nuri in a Beraisa forbids rice and millet, because it is close to becoming Chametz - he cannot be referring to the Din of flour-offerings, because four-offerings can only be brought from wheat, not from rice or millet.
(b)Rebbi Yochanan ben Nuri must mean that it becomes real Chametz quickly - because he explicitly says that one is Chayav Kares.
(c)Since rice can become real Chametz - one can use rice-Matzos for the Mitzvah of Matzah, and one will be Chayav Kares for eating rice bread that was allowed to rise, which would not have been the case had he meant to say that it is only close to becoming Chametz, but not really Chametz.
(d)Rebbi Yochanan ben Nuri say that 'Karmis' too, is Chayav Chalah.
4)
(a)Resh Lakish rules that one is not Chayav Kares for eating bread that was kneaded with wine, honey or oil on Pesach. How does Rav Papa attempt to learn this from the Pasuk "Lo Sochal Alav Chametz, Shiv'as Yamim Tochal Alav Matzos"?
(b)How does Rav Huna Brei d'Rav Yehoshua prove him wrong from the Beraisa of 'Himcheihu, v'Gam'o'? What does the Beraisa go on to say there?
(c)At that point, the senior Rav Idi bar Avin woke up and revealed Resh Lakish's real reason. What was it?
4)
(a)Rav Papa attempts to learn that one is not Chayav Kares for eating bread that was kneaded with wine, honey or oil on Pesach, from the Pasuk "Lo Sochal Alav Chametz, Shiv'as Yamim Tochal Alav Matzos" - because he Darshened that anything with which one cannot be Yotzei on Pesach (such as bread that was kneaded with wine, honey or oil), one is not Chayav for eating on Pesach.
(b)Rav Huna Brei d'Rav Yehoshua proves him wrong from the Beraisa of 'Hamcheihu, u'Gema'o, Im Chametz Hu, Anush Kares, v'Im Matzah Hu, Ein Adam Yotzei Yedei Chovaso ba'Pesach'.
(c)Rav Idi bar Avin then woke up - and informed them that Resh Lakish's real reason was because wine, honey or oil are 'Mei Peiros' which cannot make dough, Chametz (to be Chayav Kares, but a La'av, there is, provided water is added too - Tosfos DH 'u'Mei', quoting Rabeinu Tam).
35b----------------------------------------35b
5)
(a)Seeing as one may not eat Demai, how can the Tana of our Mishnah declare someone who used Demai for the Mitzvah, Yotzei?
(b)In which case will one be Yotzei the Mitzvah of Matzah with Ma'aser Rishon wheat from which Terumah Gedolah has not been separated, and in which case will one not?
(c)Why does the Levi come for his Ma'aser before the Miru'ach? What does he gain by doing so?
5)
(a)The Tana of our Mishnah declares someone who used Demai for the Mitzvah, Yotzei, despite the fact that Demai is forbidden - because Chazal permitted a poor man to eat Demai. Consequently, he could eat Demai if he were to declare his property ('Ho'il v'Iy Ba'i Mafkir l'Nechsei'), in which case, Demai is indeed fit for him.
(b)One will be Yotzei the Mitzvah of Matzah with Ma'aser Rishon wheat from which Terumah Gedolah has not been separated - if the Levi received his Ma'aser before the Miru'ach (the flattening of the pile of grain following the winnowing), but not if he received it afterwards (when the grain has become Tevel of Terumah).
(c)The Levi comes for his Ma'aser before the Miru'ach - in order to gain the small percent more, since now he receives one tenth of the entire crop, instead of one tenth of what is left after a fiftieth has been removed for Terumah (10% instead of 9.8%).
6)
(a)Is one Yotzei with Matzah of Ma'aser Sheni or Hekdesh that was redeemed ...
1. ... if a fraction of the principle is still outstanding?
2. ... if it was only the fifth which the owner remains obligated to pay?
(b)Why does the Tana find it necessary to inform us that Kohanim can be Yotzei with Matzah of Terumah or Chalah? Why might we have thought that they are not able to?
(c)From where do we learn that in fact, they can?
(d)What do we mean when we speak about Matzah which is Tevel mid'Rabanan? Is one Yotzei with such Matzah?
6)
(a)If the owner eats Matzah of Ma'aser Sheni or Hekdesh whose ...
1. ... principle was not fully redeemed - he will not be Yotzei.
2. ... whose principle was fully redeemed, but the extra fifth of which was not, he will be Yotzei.
(b)We might have thought that Kohanim cannot be Yotzei with Matzah of Terumah or of Chalah - because the Torah requires Matzah that is fit for all Jews alike.
(c)We learn that in fact, they can - from one of the superfluous "Matzos" mentioned in the Torah.
(d)Matzah which is Tevel mid'Rabanan refers to Matzah baked from wheat which grew in a pot without a hole (an Atzitz she'Eino Nakuv).
7)
(a)What do we learn from the Pasuk ...
1. ... "v'Tzarta ha'Kesef b'Yadecha" (in Re'eh, with regard to the redemption of Ma'aser Sheni)?
2. ... "v'Nasan ha'Kesef v'Kam Lo" (in Bechukosai, with regard to the redemption of a field of Hekdesh)?
7)
(a)We learn from the Pasuk ...
1. ... "v'Tzarta ha'Kesef b'Yadecha" - that in order to redeem Ma'aser Sheni, one requires specifically a minted coin i.e. with a picture on it, and not just a plain one.
2. ... "v'Nasan ha'Kesef v'Kam Lo" - that Hekdesh must be redeemed with something that can be given from hand to hand, but not with land.
8)
(a)Tevel comprises Terumah Gedolah, Terumas Ma'aser, Ma'aser Rishon and Ma'aser Sheni or Ma'aser Oni. Which factor makes Ma'aser Oni more lenient than all the other cases?
(b)Will one be Yotzei the Mitzvah of Matzah by eating Matzah from which Ma'aser Oni has not been separated?
(c)Bearing in mind that the author of this Beraisa is Rebbi Shimon, what is the reason for this? What does Rebbi Shimon say?
(d)On what grounds does the Gemara reject the suggestion that it is on account of the Pasuk "Lo Sochal Alav Chametz " etc. 'Mi she'Isuro Mishum Bal Tochal Chametz Bilevad, Yatza Zeh, she'Ein Isuro Mishun Bal Tochal Chametz Bilevad, Ela Af Mishum Bal Tochal Tevel'?
8)
(a)Ma'aser Oni is more lenient than Terumah Gedolah, Terumas Ma'aser, Ma'aser Rishon (which contains Terumas Ma'aser) and Ma'aser Sheni - inasmuch as it has no Kedushah.
(b)Nevertheless, someone who eats Matzah from which Ma'aser Oni has not been separated - will not be Yotzei.
(c)Rebbi Shimon says that someone who eats Neveilah on Yom Kippur is not Chayav Chatas for eating on Yom Kippur - because 'Ein Isur Chal Al Isur', and the Isur of Neveilah (or at least that of Ever min ha'Chai) came first. For the same reason, Tevel is not subject to the Isur of Chametz, and we have already learned that whatever is not subject to Chametz cannot be used for the Mitzvah of Matzah.
(d)The Gemara rejects the suggestion that it is on account of the Pasuk "Lo Sochal Alav Chametz " etc. 'Mi she'Isuro Mishum Bal Tochal Chametz Bilevad, Yatza Zeh, she'Ein Isuro Mishun Bal Tochal Chametz Bilevad, Ela Af Mishum Bal Tochal Tevel' - because how can we insert the word "Bilevad," when the Torah did not do so.