1)

(a)We have already discussed our Mishnah (of a Nezirah whose husband annulled her Nezirus after she had already designated her Korbanos). Which three animals does she bring for her Chatas, Olah and Shelamim respectively?

(b)What is the time-period for eating ...

1. ... regular Shelamim?

2. ... Shalmei Nazir?

(c)What are the two other differences between regular Shelamim and Shalmei Nazir?

(d)If the Chatas belongs to the woman (i.e. if it was purchased from her money), it must die. Is someone Chayav a Korban Me'ilah for benefiting from it?

1)

(a)We have already discussed our Mishnah (of a Nezirah whose husband annulled her Nezirus after she had already designated her Korbanos). The three animals that she bring for her Chatas, Olah and Shelamim respectively are - a she-sheep, a sheep and a ram.

(b)The time-period for eating ...

1. ... regular Shelamim - is two days and the intervening night.

2. ... Shalmei Nazir - a day and a night.

(c)The two other differences between regular Shelamim and Shalmei Nazir are - that the latter require bread (ten loaves and ten wafers) and a special ceremony regarding the right foreleg, whereas the former do not.

(d)If the Chatas belongs to the (i.e. if it was purchased from her money), it must die. Although it is forbidden to benefit from it (mid'Rabanan) - someone who does so is not Chayav a Korban Me'ilah (see Tosfos DH 'D'mei Chatas').

2)

(a)In the previous case, the Olah and the Shelamim are brought as Nedavos. Will Rebbi Yishmael, who learned above that the Olah in the case of a Nazir Tamei is not brought, agree with this?

(b)The Shelamim are only eaten for one day. Will this be the case even assuming that the Tana holds that a husband uproots the Neder retroactively?

(c)Why are the breads that normally accompany the Shelamim not brought here?

(d)If she already designated them however, they will require redemption, irrespective of whether a husband uproots his wife's Neder retroactively or only from now on. Assuming the latter, on what basis will one be permitted to redeem the bread at all?

2)

(a)In the previous case, the Olah and the Shelamim are brought as Nedavos. Even Rebbi Yishmael, who learned above that the Olah in the case of a Nazir Tamei is not brought - agrees with this, because he only said that with reference to a Nazir Tamei, where the Torah compares the Olah to the Chatas, but not with reference to a Nazir Tahor.

(b)The Shelamim are only eaten for one day - even assuming that the Tana holds that a husband uproots the Neder retroactively, because, having been designated as a Shalmei Nazir (which is only eaten for one day), it is still treated as such (with all the Chumros).

(c)The breads that normally accompany the Shelamim are not brought here - because the Torah writes with regard to them "al Kapei Nazir", and the owner in this case is not a Nazir.

(d)If she already designated them however, they will require redemption, irrespective of whether a husband uproots his wife's Neder retroactively or only from now onwards. Even assuming the latter, one will be permitted to redeem the bread - because until the Shechitah of the Shelamim, it does not assume the status of Kedushas ha'Guf.

3)

(a)What is the "Zero'a Besheilah"? What normally happens to it?

(b)When we will later say 'Shalmei Nazir she'Shachtan she'Lo ke'Mitzvasan' (such as the one under discussion) 'Ein Lo Zero'a', we may mean that it is not waved (though it is certainly forbidden to a Zar). What else might we mean?

(c)Does this also pertain to the case in our Mishnah?

3)

(a)The "Zero'a Besheilah" is - the right foreleg, which is normally cooked, waved and given to the Kohen.

(b)When we will later say 'Shalmei Nazir she'Shachtan she'Lo ke'Mitzvasan' (such as the one under discussion) 'Ein Lo Zero'a', we may mean that it is not waved (though it is certainly forbidden to a Zar) - or that it is cooked independently (and not together with the rest of the ram).

(c)In fact - this applies to our Mishnah too, because, wherever the bread is not brought, the Zero'a Besheilah is not brought in the usual manner either (see Tosfos Amud Beis DH 've'Ein Te'unin').

4)

(a)Unspecified money goes to the Yam ha'Melach, and so does the money that is specified for her Chatas. May one derive benefit from it?

(b)Why is one not obligated to bring a Korban Me'ilah if one does?

(c)What is the status of the Olah that she purchases with the money that was specified for her Olah?

(d)What are the specifications ofs the Shelamim that she purchases with the money for her Shelamim (regarding the time-limit to eat it, and whether it requires bread)?

4)

(a)Unspecified money goes to the Yam ha'Melach, and so does the money that is specified for her Chatas - from which one may not derive benefit (mid'Rabanan).

(b)One is not however, obligated to bring a Korban Me'ilah if one does - because, seeing as it goes to the Yam ha'Melach, it is not called 'Kodshei Hashem'.

(c)The status of the Olah that she purchases with the money that was specified for her Olah - is a full-fledged Olah (which is subject to Me'ilah).

(d)The specifications of the Shelamim that she purchases with the money for her Shelamim are - that she has one day to eat it (like all Shalmei Nazir), though it does not require bread.

5)

(a)On what grounds does the Tana differentiate between whether the animal is his or hers?

(b)Rav Chisda establishes the author of our Mishnah as the Rabbanan, of Rebbi Yehudah. What does Rebbi Yehudah say about a poor married woman who is married to a wealthy man and who is obligated to bring a Korban Oleh ve'Yoreid (which depends on one's financial status)?

(c)Does this mean that she is permitted to volunteer as many Korbanos as she wishes and that her husband is obligated to bring them on her behalf?

(d)Rava disagrees with Rav Chisda. On what grounds does he establish our Mishnah even like Rebbi Yehudah?

5)

(a)The Tana differentiate between whether the animal is his or hers - on the grounds that her husband is not obligated to bring Korbanos on her behalf.

(b)Rav Chisda establishes the author of our Mishnah as the Rabbanan, of Rebbi Yehudah. Rebbi Yehudah says - that if a poor married woman is married to a wealthy man and is obligated to bring a Korban Oleh ve'Yoreid (which depends on one's financial status) - her husband is obligated to bring the Korban of a wealthy woman on her behalf.

(c)This does not mean that she is permitted to volunteer as many Korbanos as she wishes and that her husband is obligated to bring them on her behalf - because Rebbi Yehudah's Din is restricted to Korbanos that she is obligated to bring (and not to Nedavos).

(d)Rava disagrees with Rav Chisda. He establish our Mishnah even like Rebbi Yehudah - on the grounds that Rebbi Yehudah only obligates the husband to provide her with Korbanos that she is obligated (but not Korbanos that remain after he has annulled her Nezirus).

6)

(a)The source of Rebbi Yehudah is the text that is written in the receipt that a divorced woman hands to her ex-husband when he pays her Kesuvah. What does she write in that receipt?

6)

(a)The source of Rebbi Yehudah is the text that is written in the receipt that a divorced woman hands to her ex-husband when he pays her Kesuvah - in which she writes that her husband has paid her Kesuvah and that she foregoes whatever he was Meshubad to her.

7)

(a)In the second Lashon, Rav Yehudah agrees that, according to the Rabbanan (who hold that a husband is not obligated to bring his wife's Korbanos at all) our Mishnah would be superfluous. Consequently, the author must be Rebbi Yehudah. But seeing as, in his opinion, a husband is obligated to bring his wife's Korbanos, why does the Tana say 'Teitzei ve'Tir'eh be'Eider' (even as regards a Chatas)?

(b)On what grounds did Rav Chisda not establish our Mishnah like the Rabbanan, when the husband was Makneh his animals for her use (should he not annul her Neder)?

(c)Here too, Rava disagrees. On what grounds does he now establish our Mishnah even like the Rabbanan?

(d)Why are we forced to say that her husband was Makneh her his animals at an earlier date for when she will need them, and not after she declared her Neder Nezirus?

7)

(a)In the second Lashon, Rav Yehudah agrees that, according to the Rabbanan (who hold that a husband is not obligated to bring his wife's Korbanos at all) our Mishnah would be superfluous. Consequently, the author must be Rebbi Yehudah. Despite the fact that in his opinion, a husband is obligated to bring his wife's Korbanos, the Tana says 'Teitzei ve'Tir'eh be'Eider' (even with regard to the Chatas) - because he is only obligated to bring the Korbanos that she is obligated (like Rava learned in the first Lashon).

(b)Rav Chisda did not establish our Mishnah like the Rabbanan, when the husband was Makneh his animals for her use (should he not annul her Neder) - because in that case, they would belong to her, and the Chatas ought to die.

(c)Here too, Rava disagrees, establishing our Mishnah even like the Rabbanan - when the husband was Makneh her the animals. He is only Makneh however, the animals that she needs (just like Rebbi Yehudah says with regards to the Takanas Chachamim).

(d)We are forced to say that her husband was Makneh her his animals at an earlier date for when she will need them, and not after she declared her Neder Nezirus - because if he gave her the animals after her Neder Nezirus, it would be tantamount to Hakamah (in which case he could no longer annul her Neder) Tosfos.

24b----------------------------------------24b

8)

(a)To reconcile our Mishnah, which says 'Im she'Lah Haysah ... ' with the principle 'Mah she'Kansah Ishah Kansah Ba'alah', we establish it in a case of 'Kamtzah me'Isasah'. What does this mean?

(b)To reconcile our Sugya with the Sugya in Kesuvos, which maintains 'Moser Mezonos le'Ba'alah', we establish our case when her husband had already said to her 'Tze'i Ma'aseh Yadayich bi'Mezonosayich', to which she had agreed, and she then produced more than she would have received from her husband. How else might we reconcile the two Sugyos?

(c)And how else might we answer the initial Kashya from 'Mah she'Kansah Ishah, Kansah Ba'alah'?

(d)Is this answer the Halachah?

8)

(a)To reconcile our Mishnah, which says 'Im she'Lah Haysah ... ' with the principle 'Mah she'Kansah Ishah Kansah Ba'alah', we establish it in a case of 'Kamtzah me'Isasah' - meaning that if the woman scrimped on her food (which will now be explained), she is permitted to retain it.

(b)To reconcile our Sugya with the Sugya in Kesuvos, which maintains 'Moser Mezonos le'Ba'alah', we establish our case when her husband had already said to her 'Tze'i Ma'aseh Yadayich bi'Mezonosayich', to which she had agreed, and she then produced more than she would have received from her husband - or when she literally scrimped, eating less than she actually needed; whereas the Sugya in Kesuvos speaks when she ate her fill, but when the price of food dropped, so she purchased more than she actually needed.

(c)We might also answer the initial Kashya from 'Mah she'Kansah Ishah, Kansah Ba'alah' - by establishing our Mishnah when someone gave her food on the express condition that her husband has no right to it.

(d)This is not Halachah however - according to Tosfos, who rules like Rav in the last Perek of Nedarim that it is only if the donor adds 'Mah she'At Nosenes le'Toch Pich' that her husband does not acquire it (though from the fact that the Gemara does not answer that, it would appear that the Halachah is not like Rav).

9)

(a)There are four cases (all Mishnahs) where the ram of the Shalmei Nazir does not require bread. One of these is 'she'Lah' (our Mishnah). The next is 'she'Lo', which deals with a case where a father declared a Neder Nezirus on behalf of his son. May one person be Madir Nezirus on behalf of another?

(b)What is the significance of the continuation of the Mishnah 'Gilach O she'Gilchuhu Kerovav'?

(c)What is now the case of 'she'Lo' where he brings a Shelamim but not the bread?

(d)What happens to the money of the Chatas and of the Olah?

9)

(a)There are four cases (all Mishnahs) where the ram of the Shalmei Nazir does not require bread. One of these is 'she'Lah' (our Mishnah). The next is 'she'Lo', which deals with a case where a father declared a Neder Nezirus on behalf of his son. In fact - anyone else (including a mother on behalf of her son) cannot be Madir Nezirus on behalf of someone else.

(b)The significance of the continuation of the Mishnah 'Gilach O she'Gilchuhu Kerovav' is - that the son or another relative can object to the father's declaration (thereby negating it), and the shaving serves as the objection.

(c)The case of 'she'Lo' where he brings a Shelamim but not the bread is - when, following the father declaring his son a Nazir, the son or a relative objected to it or shaved the son, and he had money specified for his Shelamim.

(d)The money of the Chatas and of the Olah - is dealt with in exactly the same way as they are in our Mishnah (the one goes to the Yam ha'Melach, the other is used to purchase an Olah).

10)

(a)The third case is that of 'she'le'Achar Misah'. Why is there no Me'ilah regarding the unspecified money of a Nazir?

(b)Nevertheless, the Tana says 'Lo Nehenin'. Is this min ha'Torah or mid'Rabanan?

(c)Should the Nazir die, leaving over unspecified money, it goes to Nedavah. What is 'Nedavah'?

(d)What happens to the money if it was specified (for a Chatas, an Olah and a Shelamim)?

10)

(a)The third case is that of 'she'le'Achar Misah'. The reason that there is no Me'ilah regarding the unspecified money of Nazir is - because theoretically, the money could all be used to purchase a Shelamim, and since there is no Me'ilah on a Shelamim (seeing as, like all Kodshim Kalim, it is not called "Kodshei Hash-m"), there is no Me'ilah on the money either.

(b)Nevertheless, the Tana says 'Lo Nehenin' - which appears to mean 'mid'Rabanan', but which might also mean even mi'd'Oraysa, seeing as the Shelamim itself would also be forbidden mi'd'Oraysa.

(c)Should the Nazir die, leaving over unspecified money, the money goes to Nedavah - meaning for 'Olas Kayitz ha'Mizbei'ach' (to bring communal Olos Nedavah whenever the Mizbei'ach is not in use).

(d)If the money was specified (for a Chatas, an Olah and a Shelamim) - it is dealt with in the same way as the equivalent money in our Mishnah.

11)

(a)The fourth case is that of 'she'le'Achar Kaparah'. What is the case?

(b)What did Shmuel now ask Avuhah bar Ihi to explain to him (before sitting down)?

(c)He answered him (or Shmuel said it himself) by comparing 'she'le'Achar Kaparah' to 'she'le'Achar Misah'. What does this mean?

11)

(a)The fourth case is that of 'she'le'Achar Kaparah' - meaning that, if the Shelamim got lost, and after he had brought a replacement on the Mizbei'ach, it was found, he brings it but minus the bread.

(b)Shmuel now asked Avuhah bar Ihi to explain to him (before sitting down) - either the reason for this fourth case, or the Kashya that we will ask shortly about the fifth case.

(c)He answered him (or Shmuel said it himself) by comparing 'she'le'Achar Kaparah' to 'she'le'Achar Misah' - just as the Shelamim in the case of she'le'Achar Misah do not require bread because they no longer serve to atone for the Nazir, so too, do the Shelamim of 'she'le'Achar Kaparah' no longer serve to atone for him.

12)

(a)We ask why Chazal only quoted four cases where the Shelamim are brought without the bread, when really there are five. The fifth case is that of Shalmei Nazir she'Shachtan she'Lo ke'Mitzvasan'. This might mean one that was Shechted she'Lo Lishmah. What else might it mean?

(b)Is the Korban Kasher? Has the owner fulfilled his obligation?

(c)Why is no bread brought with the Korban, and the Dinim of Zero'a not applied?

(d)What is the source of the Din of eating Shalmei Nazir for only one day?

12)

(a)We ask why Chazal only quoted four cases where the Shelamim is brought without the bread, when really there are five. The fifth case is that of Shalmei Nazir she'Shachtan she'Lo ke'Mitzvasan'. This might mean one that was Shechted she'Lo Lishmah - or it might mean a lamb in its first year (whereas a ram by definition, means in its second year).

(b)The Korban is Kasher - but the owner has not fulfilled his obligation (in effect, he has brought a Shalmei Nedavah).

(c)No bread is brought with the Korban, and the Dinim of Zero'a are not applied - because the Korban does not serve to permit the Nazir to drink wine.

(d)The source of the Din of eating Shalmei Nazir for only one day is - the Korban Todah, from which it is derived (from "al Zevach Todas Shelamav" [which is otherwise superfluous]).

13)

(a)What did Avuhah bar Ihi answer Shmuel? Why did Chazal list only four cases of Shalmei Nazir that are brought without bread, and not five?

13)

(a)Avuhah bar Ihi answered Shmuel that Chazal list only four cases of Shalmei Nazir that are brought without bread, and not five - because they only include in the list Shelamim that are brought according to their specifications.

OTHER D.A.F. RESOURCES
ON THIS DAF