MENACHOS 45 - dedicated by Rabbi Kornfeld's father in memory of his aunt, Malka Gitel bas Reb Yakov Mordechai (Malvina Marmorstein), who took him into her home and raised him like her own child after the Holocaust. Her Yahrzeit is 20 Nisan.

1)

(a)Why can Eilim in our Mishnah not refer to the Musaf of Rosh Chodesh and Shavu'os (like the Parim and the Kevasim)?

(b)What is the difference between the Parim, Eilim and Kevasim in Chomesh ha'Pekudim (Pinchas) and those in Toras Kohanim (Emor)?

(c)Why do we initially think that it (Eilim) cannot refer to the Korbanos in Toras Kohanim, either?

1)

(a)Eilim in our Mishnah cannot refer to the Musaf of Rosh Chodesh and Shavu'os (like the Parim and the Kevasim) - because they only bring one ram (so the term Eilim (plural) is inappropriate).

(b)The Parim, Eilim and Kevasim in Chomesh ha'Pekudim (Pinchas) comprise the Musaf - whereas those in Toras Kohanim (Emor) - comprise the set of Korbanos that accompany the Sh'tei ha'Lechem.

(c)Initially, we think that it cannot refer to the Korbanos in Toras Kohanim either - since the Torah writes there "Yih'yu Olah" (and 'Havayah' always comes to be Me'akev).

2)

(a)We conclude that Eilim in our Mishnah refers to the Eilim in Toras Kohanim. How do we then resolve the current problem? What is the Mishnah coming to teach us?

(b)How can it be that our Tana refers to the Parim and the Kevasim even of the same set, but to Eilim specifically of different sets?

2)

(a)We conclude that Eilim in our Mishnah refers to the Eilim in Toras Kohanim, and the Mishnah is coming to teach us that the Eilim in Toras Kohanim are not Me'akev those in Chomesh ha'Pekudim (nor vice-versa).

(b)There is no problem with our Tana referring to the Parim and the Kevasim even of the same set, but to Eilim specifically of different sets - since the Dinim of Parim, Eilim and Kevasim are not part of the same Halachah, but constitute three independent Halachos.

3)

(a)What do we learn from the Pasuk in Yechezkel "u'va'Yom ha'Chodesh ...

1. ... Par ben Bakar Temimim"?

2. ... ve'Shishah Kevasim"?

3. ... ve'la'Kevasim asher Tasig Yado"?

(b)Then why does the Torah write "Shishah Kevasim"?

(c)And what do we learn from "Yih'yu"?

3)

(a)We learn from the Pasuk in Yechezkel "u'va'Yom ha'Chodesh ...

1. ... Par ben Bakar Temimim" that - if the Kohanim do find two bulls for the Musaf of Rosh Chodesh (as required), then they may bring just one.

2. ... ve'Shishah Kevasim" that - if they do not have the seven prescribed lambs, then they may bring six.

3. ... ve'la'Kevasim asher Tasig Yado" that - in a case of emergency, they are even permitted to bring just one lamb.

(b)Nevertheless, the Torah writes "Shishah Kevasim", to teach us that - they must make every effort to bring as many of the prescribed lambs as possible.

(c)Whereas from "Yih'yu" we learn that - the bulls, the rams and the lambs are Me'akev each other (see Tosfos DH 'u'Minayin').

4)

(a)What problem do we have with the Pasuk (ibid.) "Koh Amar Hash-m Elokim: ba'Rishon be'Echad la'Chodesh Tikach Par ben Bakar Vechiteisa es ha'Bayis"?

(b)When Rebbi Yochanan maintained that Eliyahu will solve this problem once the third Beis-Hamikdash has been built, Rav Ashi claimed that he has an answer. How did he explain this Korban? To which Beis-Hamikdash does it refer?

(c)We support Rav Ashi's answer with a Beraisa. What did Rebbi Yossi reply, when Rebbi Yehudah made the same comment regarding the Pasuk in Yechezkel as Rebbi Yochanan?

(d)What was Rebbi Yehudah's reaction to that?

4)

(a)The problem with the Pasuk (Ibid.) "Koh Amar Hash-m Elokim ba'Rishon be'Echad la'Chodesh Tikach Par ben Bakar Vechiteisa es ha'Bayis" is that - the bulls on Rosh Chodesh are brought as an Olah, and not a Chatas (as implied in this Pasuk).

(b)When Rebbi Yochanan maintained that Eliyahu will solve this problem once the third Beis-Hamikdash has been built, Rav Ashi claimed that he had an answer. According to him - this bull was brought as a Milu'im (an inaugural sacrifice) on the eighth day after the completion of the second Beis-Hamikdash (in the same way as Aharon brought a goat as a Chatas, at the Milu'im on the eighth day after the completion of the Mishkan.

(c)We support Rav Ashi's answer with a Beraisa, where, when Rebbi Yehudah made the same comment regarding the Pasuk in Yechezkel as Rebbi Yochanan, Rebbi Yossi replied that - the bull was brought to inaugurate the second Beis-Hamikdash.

(d)To which Rebbi Yehudah replied 'May Hash-m set your mind at rest, just as you set mine at rest'.

5)

(a)What problem did Rebbi Yochanan have with the Pasuk in Yechezkel "Neveilah u'Tereifah Lo Yochlu ha'Kohanim"? What did he comment in this regard?

(b)How did Ravina explain it? Why might we have thought that the Kohanim would be allowed to eat Neveilah and Tereifah?

(c)How did Rebbi Yochanan interpret the Pasuk (ibid.) "ve'Chein Ta'aseh be'Shiv'ah ba'Chodesh me'Ish Shogeh u'mi'Pesi ... "? How did he explain ...

1. ... "ve'Chein Ta'aseh"?

2. ... "be'Shiv'ah"?

3. ... "ba'Chodesh"?

4. ... "me'Ish Shogeh u'mi'Pesi"?

5)

(a)The problem Rebbi Yochanan had with the Pasuk in Yechezkel "Neveilah u'Tereifah Lo Yochlu ha'Kohanim" was - why this is mentioned here, seeing as Yisre'eilim are not permitted to eat Neveilos and T'reifos any more than Kohanim are? Here too, he commented that only Eliyahu will be able to answer this question.

(b)Ravina explained that the Pasuk needs to mention this specifically with regard to Kohanim, whom we might otherwise have thought are permitted to eat Neveilah and Tereifah - seeing as they are permitted to eat Melikas ha'Of (which is in fact, Neveilah).

(c)Rebbi Yochanan, interpreting the Pasuk (ibid.) "ve'Chein Ta'aseh be'Shiv'ah ba'Chodesh me'Ish Shogeh u'mi'Pesi ... ", explained ...

1. ... "ve'Chein Ta'aseh" to mean that - should it become necessary, they should bring a bull as a Par He'elam Davar, just as they brought the bull mentioned previously ...

2. ... "be'Shiv'ah" - even if only seven tribes (the majority, even though they do not constitute the majority of people) followed the ruling of Beis-Din ha'Gadol.

3. ... "ba'Chodesh" - Beis-Din issued a new ruling [forbidding something that is Chayav Kareis] ...

4. ... "me'Ish Shogeh u'mi'Pesi" - and the people acted be'Shogeg upon their ruling.

6)

(a)To whom was Rav Yehudah Amar Rav referring when he said May that man be remembered for the good?

(b)What problems did the latter have?

(c)What did he do in order to solve them?

(d)Why did Rav Yehudah Amar Rav praise him so highly?

6)

(a)When Rav Yehudah Amar Rav said 'May that man be remembered for the good', he was referring to - Chanina (or Chananya) ben Chizkiyah.

(b)Who was confronted - by the various problems in Seifer Yechezkel that we just discussed.

(c)In order to solve them - he took three hundred barrels of oil (as fuel) up to his attic, where he toiled, until he resolved all the difficulties.

(d)Rav Yehudah Amar Rav praised him so highly - because, were it not for his efforts, they would have hidden the Book of Yechezkel.

7)

(a)What problem does Rebbi Shimon have with the Pasuk in Yechezkel "ve'Eifah la'Par ve'Eifah la'Ayil Ya'aseh Minchah ... "?

(b)So what does he learn from there?

7)

(a)The problem Rebbi Shimon has with the Pasuk in Yechezkel "ve'Eifah la'Par ve'Eifah la'Ayil Ya'aseh Minchah ... " is that - the Minchah of a Par consists of three Esronim, whereas that of an Ayil is two Esronim. So how can the Pasuk equate them.

(b)He therefore learns from there that - it is preferable to bring one bull with its Minchah or one ram with its Minchah, rather than many bulls without their Menachos (as we learned in our Mishnah, and Eifah refers [not specifically to an Eifah, but to the required measure of flour for one bull or ram]).

45b--------------------45b

8)

(a)Our Mishnah rules that the bull, the rams, the lambs and the goat on Shavu'os are not Me'akev the Sh'tei ha'Lechem, nor vice-versa. How will we reconcile this with Rebbi Akiva's next statement, that the Sh'tei ha'Lechem are Me'akev the lambs?

(b)What about the lambs (that accompany the Sh'tei ha'Lechem) being Me'akev the Sh'tei ha'Lechem, according to Rebbi Akiva?

(c)On what basis does Rebbi Shimon ben Nannes say the opposite?

(d)Why did they not bring the Sh'tei ha'Lechem in the desert?

8)

(a)Our Mishnah rules that the bull, the rams, the lambs and the goat on Shavu'os are not Me'akev the Sh'tei ha'Lechem, nor vice-versa. Rebbi Akiva's next statement, that the Sh'tei ha'Lechem are Me'akev the lambs is not a contradiction to this - since he is referring to the two lambs that accompany the Sh'tei-ha'Lechem, whereas the Tana Kama is referring to the seven lambs that are brought simultaneously, together with a bull and two rams.

(b)The lambs (that accompany the Sh'tei ha'Lechem) on the other hand - are not Me'akev the Sh'tei ha'Lechem however - even according to Rebbi Akiva.

(c)According to Rebbi Shimon ben Nannes, it is the lambs that are Me'akev the Sh'tei ha'Lechem, but not vice-versa - because, he says, during the forty years in the desert, they brought the lambs, but not the loaves ...

(d)... since the Sh'tei ha'Lechem must be brought from the crops of Eretz Yisrael.

9)

(a)What does Rebbi Shimon add, after ruling like ben Nannes?

(b)What principle does he state that clashes with what ben Nannes said?

(c)Why then, according to Rebbi Shimon, may one bring the Kevasim without the Lechem, but not the Lechem without the Kevasim?

9)

(a)After ruling like ben Nannes, Rebbi Shimon adds that - this ruling is not based on his reason.

(b)He states the principle that - whatever is mentioned in Chomesh ha'Pekudim (the Musafim) they brought in the desert, but not whatever is mentioned in Toras Kohanim (the Sh'tei ha'Lechem and the Korbanos that were brought together with them (whereas ben Nannes maintains that they brought the latter but not the former).

(c)And the reason that, according to Rebbi Shimon, one may bring the Kevasim without the Lechem, but not the Lechem without the kevasim is - because the Kevasim are Matir themselves (to be eaten), whereas the Lechem need the Kevasim to be Matir them, but are not Matir themselves.

10)

(a)Seeing as "Shiv'as Kevasim Temimim" implies that the lambs can be brought independently (see Tosfos DH 'Shiv'as'), how does Rebbi Tarfon in a Beraisa explain the Pasuk "Vehikravtem al ha'Lechem"?

(b)How do we know that the Korbanos mentioned in the Pasuk in Emor are not the same ones as those mentioned in Pinchas (which would mean that the Musafin were not brought in the desert)?

(c)What conclusion does Rebbi Tarfon draw from this?

(d)How does he know that ...

1. ... the distinction extends even to the lambs, which are the same in both Parshiyos?

2. ... all the animals in the two Parshiyos are not the same ones? Perhaps the Torah gave the Kohen the choice of bringing one bull and two rams or two bulls and one ram?

10)

(a)Despite the fact that "Shiv'as Kevasim Temimim" implies that they can be brought independently (see Tosfos DH 'Shiv'as'), Rebbi Tarfon learns from the Pasuk "Vehikravtem al ha'Lechem" that - the Kevasim were not brought as long as the Lechem could not be brought (in the desert).

(b)We know that the Korbanos mentioned in the Pasuk in Emor are not the same as those mentioned in Pinchas (which would mean that the Musafin were not brought in the desert) - because whereas the former comprised one bull and two rams, the latter comprised two bulls and one ram).

(c)Rebbi Tarfon therefore concludes that - although they did not bring the animals listed in Emor in the desert, they did bring those listed in Pinchas.

(d)And he knows that ...

1. ... the distinction extends even to the lambs, which are the same in both Parshiyos - because it would be illogical to distinguish between the lambs in Pinchas on the one hand, and the bulls and the rams on the other, seeing as they are all listed together.

2. ... all the animals in the two Parshiyos are not the same ones (and that the Torah did not simply give the Kohen the choice of bringing one bull and two rams or two bulls and one ram) - because the Torah also changes the order (from Kevasim, Par and Eilim in Emor to Parim, Ayil and Kevasim in Pinchas).

11)

(a)What does Rebbi Akiva (in our Mishnah) learn from the Gezeirah-Shavah "Yih'yu" (Veheinif ha'Kohen Osam al Lechem ha'Bikurim ... Yih'yu la'Hashem") "Tih'yenah" ("So'les Tih'yenah" [both in Emor])?

(b)Why does ben Nannes prefer to learn the Gezeirah-Shavah from the Pasuk there (in connection with the animals) "Yih'yu Olah la'Hashem" that it is the Kevasim that are Me'akev the Lechem.

(c)Why does he not contend with Rebbe Yishmael's principle 'Mah hi 'Shivah', Mah hi 'Bi'ah' (as long as the words in the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' are similar in meaning)?

(d)How does Rebbi Akiva counter that argument? Why does he nevertheless opt to learn from "So'les Tih'yenah"?

11)

(a)Rebbi Akiva (in our Mishnah) learns from the Gezeirah-Shavah "Yih'yu" ("Veheinif ha'Kohen Osam al Lechem ha'Bikurim ... Yih'yu la'Hashem") "Tih'yenah" ("So'les Tih'yenah" [both in Emor]) that - the Lechem is Me'akev the Kevasim.

(b)ben Nannes prefers to learn the Gezeirah-Shavah from the Pasuk there (in connection with the animals) "Yih'yu Olah la'Hashem" that it is the Kevasim that are Me'akev the Lechem - because he prefers to learn "Yih'yu" from "Yih'yu" (rather than from "Tih'yenah").

(c)He does not contend with Rebbe Yishmael's principle Mah hi 'Shiyva', Mah hi 'Bi'ah' (as long as the words in the Gezeirah-Shavah are similar in meaning) - because that is only where there is no alternative.

(d)Rebbi Akiva counters that argument however, nevertheless opting to learn from "So'les Tih'yenah" - because he prefers to learn what is a Matanah to the Kohen (the Lechem and the Kevasim) from what is a Matanah to the Kohen (the Lechem) rather than from the Olos that go to Hash-m.

12)

(a)Alternatively, they argue over the interpretation of the Pasuk "Kodesh Yih'yu la'Hashem la'Kohen". What does Rebbi Akiva mean when he says that it is the Lechem that goes entirely to the Kohen?

(b)On what grounds does ben Nannes object to that? How does he interpret "la'Hashem la'Kohen"?

(c)Why does Rebbi Akiva disagree with him?

(d)How does he then interpret the expression "la'Hashem la'Kohen"? What did Rav Huna say?

12)

(a)Alternatively, they argue over the interpretation of the Pasuk "Kodesh Yih'yu la'Hashem la'Kohen". When Rebbi Akiva says that it is the Lechem that goes entirely to the Kohen, he means - that the Pasuk obviously refers to *it* and not to the Kevasim, whose Emurim go on the Mizbe'ach.

(b)ben Nannes objects to that - due to the fact that the Torah writes "la'Hashem la'Kohen", which he interprets as if the Torah had written "la'Hashem ve'la'Kohen", implying that it pertains to the Kevasim (part of which go to Hash-m and part on the Mizbe'ach) and not to the Lechem.

(c)Rebbi Akiva disagrees with him however - since, in his opinion, the Torah should then have written "la'Hashem ve'la'Kohen" (with a 'Vav').

(d)He therefore interprets the expression "la'Hashem la'Kohen" like Rav Huna - who explained (with regard to Gezel ha'Ger) Kan'o Hash-m ve'Nasno la'Kohen, which is synonymous with the principle Kohanim mi'Shulchan Gavohah ka'Zachu (the Kohanim eat as guests at Hash-m's table).

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