hebrew
1)

What does "va'Yachel Noach" mean? Why does the Torah not just write that Noach planted a vineyard?

1.

Rashi: It means that he made himself mundane 1 (an expression of "Chulin"), 2 since he ought to have busied himself with other (more spiritual) planting. 3

2.

Ramban: Noach began (he was the first person) to plant a vineyard; until then, they only knew how to plant individual vines.

3.

Seforno: He began to plant things that were inappropriate 4 (with the unpleasant results that the Torah now describes). 5


1

Gur Aryeh: The word would be superfluous if it were to be taken in the literal sense, "he began (Hischil)."

2

Chochmah u'Musar (Vol. 2, p. 434): Why did he descend so greatly? It was permitted to plant, and Noach was free of Ta'avah! A Tzadik is one whose actions fit with thought and clarification. Without this, one remains a wild man.

3

As we say in Birkas ha'Torah, "v'Chayei Olam Nata b'Socheinu."

4

For a person who had just experienced such great miracles, who had merited prophecy and who had seen the destruction that ensues if one indulges in mundane activities.

5

Since one small sin leads to a larger one, as we also find at the end of Parshas Balak (in the episode with the daughters of Midyan).

2)

Rashi writes: "'Ish ha'Adamah' means 'master over the earth,' just like [in the verse], 'Ish Naomi' (Rus 1:3)." Ramban asks

1.

Mizrachi: The expression for the marital bond (Ishus), in the sense used by Chazal, is used regarding the bond of the wife (Ishah), not that of the husband. Also, the possessive word of, "husband of Naomi," implies "belonging to Naomi," and marriage is expressed in the opposite way. We see that "Ish Naomi" does not mean husband.

2.

Gur Aryeh: A man is always termed "Ish," independent of any marital status, therefore "Ish Naomi" cannot be an expression of their marriage. Rather, it implies mastery (Ba'alus), just as it does in our verse.

3)

What does the Torah mean when it refers to Noach as "Ish ha'Adamah"?

1.

Rashi: It means "master 1 of the earth."

2.

Ramban (citing the Radak) #1: It means "head of the earth." 2

3.

Ramban #2, Targum Onkelus and Targum Yonasan: It means "a man who spent all his time working the ground."

4.

Ramban #3: He saw that the earth was desolate, so "he became a man who attached to it" - to sow and to plant.

5.

Bereishis Rabah (36): Noach descended from being called "Ish Tzadik" to "Ish ha'Adamah." 3 Moshe ascended from being called "Ish Mitzri" to "Ish Ha'E-lokim"!


1

Also refer to 9:3:2:3.

2

(The difference between the two translations is unclear). The Ramban goes on to refute the proofs of both Rashi and the Radak.

3

Mishnas R. Aharon (Vol. 1, p. 169): Even though he saved the world through his righteousness, and a year of feeding animals without sleeping, and he knew that wine is needed for Nesachim; a physical intent was mixed in, which is man's downfall. Therefore, his title changed.

4)

From where did Noach obtain vine branches so soon after the Flood?

1.

Rashi: He took branches of vine and fig 1 trees with him into the Ark.

2.

Targum Yonasan: He found a vine that the river had carried out of Gan Eden (which produced grapes on the same day that he planted it). 2

3.

Seforno: Refer to 7:23:1:1*; refer to 8:11:2:4.


1

Why these species? Refer to 9:20:3.2; refer to 8:11:2:3; see also Sifsei Chachamim.

2

That will also explain why he became drunk

5)

Rashi writes: "Noach brought grape vines and fig shoots into [the Ark] with him." Why does Rashi add "fig shoots"?

1.

Gur Aryeh: If nothing else was available, the verse would have no complaint against him for beginning with vines rather than another species.

6)

Rashi writes: " grape vines and fig shoots." Why specifically these two species?

1.

Chizkuni: It is difficult to cultivate these trees from seeds; saplings are used instead.

2.

Gur Aryeh (citing


1

Gur Aryeh asks

7)

רש"י: עשה עצמו חולין: מנין לדרוש כך?

1.

גור אריה: קשה ש"ויחל" מיותר? אלא שעשה עצמו חולין.

8)

רש"י: כמו איש נעמי: רמב"ן: אצל נעמי "איש" הוא מלשון אישות?

1.

רא"ם: אם כוונת הרמב"ן ל'אישות' כלשון חכמים [מענין קידושין ונישואין], לא מצאנו זאת אלא במקום שכתוב 'אשה' ולא כשכתוב 'איש'? ואם כוונתו שהוא איש לאשתו כשם שהיא אשה לבעלה, אין לומר כך כי האשה קנויה לבעלה ולא להפך? ועל כרחך ש"איש נעמי" פירושו בעל נעמי, [וכאן פרושו אדוני האדמה].

2.

גור אריה: אע"פ שאין האיש קנוי לאשה אפשר לומר 'איש של נעמי' כי היא קנויה לו, אלא שהיה קשה לרש"י ש'איש' נופל על הזכר כשלעצמו ולא בבחינה שהוא מצטרף אל האשה? ולכן פירש ש'איש' מלשון 'בעל'.

9)

זמורות ויחורי תאנים: למה הוסיף רש"י יחורי תאנים?

1.

גור אריה: אם לא כן, לא הייתה טענה עליו שהיה לו לעסוק בנטיעה אחרת.

10)

זמורות ויחורי תאנים: למה לקח דוקא את שני אלו?

1.

גור אריה: י"א שהם מתקלקלים במים יותר משאר נטיעות. 1

2.

גור אריה: הם מאכל אדם יותר משאר אילנות, ובאמת הכניס גם מינים אחרים שהעולם צריך להם.


1

הגור אריה מקשה עלהם שהמבול 'בלה הכל' ולא נשארו אילנות?

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