1)

What is the word "Kol Y'mei Neder Nizro, Ta'ar ... " coming to include?

1.

Nazir, 14b & 15a: Refer to 6:4:1:1*.

2)

What are the implications of "Neder Nizro"?

1.

Sifri: It implies that the Neder is dependent upon the Nezirus, and not vice-versa. Consequently, if the Nazir declared Nezirus on one of the three basic tenets of Nezirus (wine, Tum'ah and shaving), we go after the Nezirus and not after the Neder - and he is a Nazir in all three,

3)

Why does the Torah refer to "Nizro" (his Nezirus)?

1.

Pesachim, 23a: To teach us that, despite R. Avahu's principle that, whenever the Torah uses a Lashon Achilah, it incorporates an Isur Hana'ah, 1 it does not apply to a Nazir, even though the Torah writes "me'Chartzanim ve'Ad Zag Lo Yochel" - and one is permitted to arrange an Eruv Techumin with wine on his behalf.

1

See Torah Temimah, note, 37.

4)

What if the Nazir shaves off his hair by means other than a razor?

1.

Nazir, 39b: "Gadeil Pera Se'ar Rosho" implies a prohibition against shaving off his hair, irrespective of how he does it - whether he cuts it off near the root, pulls it out completely or snips off only the tip. 1

2.

Sotah, 16a: The Halachah (le'Moshe mi'Sinai) - that the Nazir is Chayav irrespective of how he shaves - overrides the Pasuk which says specifically a razor. 2

1

See also Torah Temimah, note 39.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 61.

5)

Seeing as the Nazir is Chayav, irrespective of how he shaves off his hair, why does the Torah mention specifically a razor?

1.

Nazir, 39b: To extrapolate that the shaving that the Nazir performs at the conclusion of his Nezirus - in Pasuk 18 - must be performed specifically with a razor. 1

1

See Torah Temimah, note 39, who elaborates.

6)

Why does the Torah write "Ta'ar Lo Ya'avor al Rosho" and not (the more grammatically correct) 'Lo Ya'avir ... '?

1.

Nazir, 44a: To incorporate where somebody else does the shaving 1 - to render him Chayav like the Nazir who shaves himself. 2

1

Nazir, Ibid.: As if it had written 'Lo Ye'ubar'.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 40.

7)

What are the implications of "Ta'ar Lo Ya'avor al Rosho"?

1.

Yerushalmi Nazir, 6:3: It implies that if the Nazir shaves his hair he is Chayav Malkos, and that he is obligated to recount thirty days of his Nezirus - in order to fulfil "Gadeil Pera Se'ar Rosho." 1

1

See Torah Temimah, note 43.

8)

Having said "Kol Y'mei Neder Nizro" why does the Torah add "ad M'los ha'Yamim"?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: To discount the suggestion that, if he is a Nazir for a few years, he is permitted to trim his hair once a year - like a N'zir Olam who may do so 1 due to the excessive weight.

1

Refer to 6:8:1:2*.

9)

What is the meaning of "Kadosh Yih'yeh"?

1.

Rashi (like Shmuel in Ta'anis 11a), Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It means that the hair of his head is holy, and he must therefore allow it to grow. 1

2.

Seforno, in Pasuk 3 (like R. Elazar in Ta'anis 11a): It means that the Nazir is holy, inasmuch as he abstains from his materialistic desires, 2 subduing his Yeitzer-ha'Ra without affecting his Avodas Hashem by weakening his body (if he were to fast).

3.

Kidushin, 57b: It means that the hair of the Nazir is Asur be'Hana'ah and that if he betroths a woman with it, the Kidushin is not valid. 3

4.

Sifri: It precludes a Nazir who becomes a Metzora, who shaves, not just the hair of his head 4 but all the hair of his body. 5

1

See Sifsei Chachamim.

2

Nazir, 11a: And if a Nazir who only abstains from one thing is called Kadosh, how much more so someone who undertakes to fast! See Torah Temimah, note 47, who elaborates.

3

Kidushin (Ibid.): If however, he sells the hair and betroths her with the proceeds, the Kidushin is valid - since the Torah writes "Kadosh" and not 'Kodesh'. See Torah Temimah, note 48.

4

Torah Temimah: Since the hair of his head is no longer holy.

5

Which, as opposed to the hair of the Nazir's head, which he places underneath the pot containing the meat of the Shelamim, he simply throws away.

10)

Since we know that both the Nazir and his hair are holy, from Pasuk 8 "Kadosh Hu l'Elokav") and Pasuk 18 ("Venasan - es Se'ar Rosho - al ha'Eish asher Tachas Zevach ha'Shelamim"), respectively, why does the Torah insert "Kadosh Yih'yeh" here?

1.

Sifri: In connection with the Pasuk "Vegilach ha'Nazir Pesach Ohel Mo'ed ... " it teaches us that his hair is holy even if robbers shaved it off against his will.

11)

What is the meaning of "Pera Se'ar Rosho"?

1.

Rashi: It means the thirty-day growth of hair on the Nazir's head. 1

1

Torah Temimah citing Nazir, 6b: And not just two days, as implied by the word "Ad M'los ha'Yamim".

12)

What is the time-frame of S'tam Nezirus (if someone declares Nezirus without saying for how long)?

1.

Nazir, 5a: Thirty days - based on the Gematriya of the word "Kadosh Yih'yeh".

2.

Nazir, 6b: Thirty days - as implied by "Gadeil Pera Se'ar Rosho", which factually, means thirty days. 1

3.

Yerushalmi Nazir, 1:3 #1: Thirty days - based on the Gezeirah Shavah "Yamim" "Yamim" ("u'Vachsah es Avihah ve'es Imah Yerach Yamim") from Y'fas To'ar, in Ki Seitzei Devarim, 21:13.

4.

Yerushalmi Nazir, 1:3 #2: Thirty days - as implied by the words "ad M'los ha'Yamim" - since a full month is thirty days. 2

1

See Torah Temimah, note 53. See also Torah Temimah on Pasuk 12, citing Yerushalmi Nazir, 1:3, which makes a similar D'rashah, based on the Pasuk in Shemini Vayikra, 10:6 "Rosheichem Al Tefra'u" and note 93 there.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 46.

13)

Why is a Nazir forbidden to shave his hair?

1.

Seforno: To negate all thoughts of pride due to his good looks that come whilst tending to his hair. 1

1

As in the story the Nazir of the south and Shimon ha'Tzadik, cited in Nazir, 4.

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