hebrew
1)

Why is the significance of the fact that Hashem forbade Aharon and his sons to refrain from having a haircut?

1.

Rashi and Ramban #1: It implies that an Aveil is generally forbidden to have a haircut, 1 but that they were obligated 2 to do so, in order not to spoil Hashem's joy. 3

2.

Ramban #2, Rashbam and Seforno: A Kohen Gadol is anyway forbidden to show any sign of mourning, 4 and the Pasuk is coming to extend the prohibition to Elazar and Isamar, who had the status of Kohanim Gedolim, since they had been anointed with the Shemen ha'Mishchah. 5


1

The same applies to the prohibition against tearing their clothes (Torah Temimah, citing Mo'ed Katan, 15a).

2

See Ramban and Sifsei Chachamim.

3

However, this D'rashah is only an Asmachta (a support from a Pasuk, since the prohibition regarding an Aveil having a haircut and leaving is clothes un-torn is only mi'de'Rabbanan [See Ramban]).

4

See Vayikra 21:10 & 11 (Ramban).

5

As the Torah explains in Pasuk 7 (Ramban, Rashbam and Seforno).

2)

Why does the Torah see fit to add "ve'Lo Samusu"? Is it not obvious?

1.

Rashi: To teach them that if they do let their hair grow long (or tear their clothes) they will be Chayav Misah. 1


1

Seeing as we always extrapolate from the 'No', Yes and from the 'Yes', No (See Sifsei Chachamim).

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