hebrew
1)

Why must she remove the clothes in which she was captured?

1.

Rashi and Rashbam: Because they are beautiful (in order to uglify her


1

Rashi: Since the Nochri women used to adorn themselves (and go to the battlefront, in order to distract the enemy and lure them into Z'nus).

2

Refer to 21:12:2:2, 21:13:3:2.

3

See Na'ar Yonasan.

2)

Why does the Torah see fit to add "Veyashvah be'Veisecha"?

1.

Rashi: When her captor enters the house he stumbles over her and when he leaves he stumbles over her, and sees her in her state of ugliness. 1

2.

Ramban (on Pasuk 12): She may not leave his house during the month-long period of mourning. 2


1

Refer to 21:12:2:1. Refer also to 21:13:3:1.

2

Refer also to 21:13:3:2.

3)

What is the significance of her crying for her father and mother?

1.

Rashi #1: His Jewish wife is happy whilst she is sad; 1 his Jewish wife is beautifully adorned, whilst she looks ugly. 2

2.

Rashi #2 (in the original manuscript) and Ramban (on Pasuk 12, according to R. Akiva) and Targum Yonasan: Her father and mother in this Pasuk apply to the Avodah-Zarah 3 that she has been forced to abandon against her will and over which she is now mourning her loss. 4


1

And mourning over her father and mother from whom she has been separated.

2

All in order to discourage him from retaining her. The Ramban too, cites this as the reason for the obligation to induce her mourning - Refer to 21:13:3:2.

3

Ramban: As in Yirmiyah, 2:27.

4

Ramban: Presumably, Beis-Din immerses her against her will - like they immerse slaves, and it is because she is being converted against her will that the Torah forbids her on her captor during this entire period.

4)

Why must she mourn "Yerach Yamim"?

1.

Refer to 21:13:3:1.

2.

Ramban (citing the Ibn Ezra): The Torah allows her to mourn and weep for the loss of her parents like one weeps and mourns the loss of a relative


1

Ramban: During that time, he is neither allowed to coerce her into changing her religion nor to be intimate with her.

2

Ramban: Since it is not correct to force a woman to be intimate whilst she is in mourning

5)

What are the implications of the word "u'Ve'altah"?

1.

Ramban #1 (citing the Sifri): The only thing he has to do with her is to be intimate 1 with her, because may and a document do not take effect on her.

2.

Rashi (Kidushin 22a) and Ramban #2: It is only after the period of mourning has ended that he is permitted to be intimate with her. 2

3.

Riva #1 (on Pasuk 11), R. Tam in Tosfos Kidushin 22a: The first Bi'ah is permitted immediately.

4.

Riva #2: Even the one who permits the first Bi'ah immediately, Bi'ah for marriage is permitted only after all the actions.


1

Ramban: In fact, even the Bi'ah is not as an act of betrothal, for she is still a Nochris when he performs the first Bi'ah. See also Ramban, DH 've'Al Derech ha'P'shat'.

2

Ramban: When the Torah wrote earlier "Vechashakta bah Velakachta Lecha l'Ishah" it meant that he may take her with the intention of living with her after he has fulfilled everything that is written in the Parshah. In the Yerushalmi, Makos 2:6, Amora'im argue about whether the first Bi'ah is permitted immediately or not.

6)

When and how does she become his wife?

1.

Riva (11): "U'Ve'altah v'Haysah Lecha l'Ishah." implies that before Bi'ah, she is not your wife. 1


1

Ramban: Even if there is a Heter for Bi'ah before the entire Parshah (a month of mourning, changing her clothes, cutting her hair

7)

According to R. Shimon ben Elazar, one may coerce a captive to immerse and become an Eved Kena'ani, and one may free a slave Bal Korcho (against his will). If so, one can permit the Ye'fas To'ar without the entire Parshah!

1.

Riva (11): The Torah permitted her due to the Yetzer ha'Ra, for sometimes one cannot wait (to make her a Shifchah, and free her).

2.

Riva citing Ri: [R. Shimon ben Elazar] permits only if he initially seized the person to be a slave.

3.

Perhaps the Parshah is needed to permit a married Nochris; if not, she is forbidden (refer to 21:11:151:1,3,4 and the notes there - PF). 1


1

Why do we need a Drashah to permit an Eshes Ish according to the opinion that permits Bi'ah only after conversion? Presumably, after conversion, her old marriage is Batel! Perhaps the Drashah is needed only to permit theft. (PF)

8)

According to R. Shimon [ben Elazar], one may coerce her to immerse and become a Shifchah, and free her and be one may immediately. Who will ever fulfill this Parshah (a month of mourning

1.

Refer to 21:13:151:2,3.

9)

Is a Kohen permitted to take a Y'fas To'ar?

1.

Riva (11, citing Kidushin 21b): Amora'im argue about this. Some say that all forbid the first Bi'ah; they argue about the second Bi'ah. 1 Others say that all permit the second Bi'ah and they argue about the first Bi'ah. 2


1

Riva: Why is this a question? Pinchas (a Kohen) was permitted the captives [from Midyan]

10)

What are the connotations ofs "Yerach Yamim"?

1.

R. Akiva (in Sifri) and Targum Yonasan: "Yerach" is one, and "Yamim" teaches two, so it is three months. Due to this abstention, there will be no Safek if her children were conceived before or after conversion.

2.

R. Eliezer (in the Sifri): It is one month, like the simple meaning. 1


1

Ba'al ha'Turim: It says "Yerach" to hint that just like the moon's light is blemished compared to the sun's, so too is a Nochris despised compared to a Bas Yisrael.

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