1)

Why did Hashem speak to Moshe with the Name 'Elokim'?

1.

Rashi: He spoke to Moshe with Mishpat (Midas ha'Din), because Moshe spoke harshly to Him and asked why He did evil to Yisrael (5:22).

2)

If Hashem spoke to Moshe with Midas ha'Din (see Rashi), why did He inform him that His Name is Havayah?

1.

Rashi #1: Because the Name Havayah also denotes that He is faithful to reward those who go in His ways, 1 and to punish those who rebel against Him. 2

2.

Rashi #2 (in Machzor Vitri): Because the redemption of Hashem's children requires Midas Rachamim.

3.

Da'as Zekenim (to 6:3): Hashem was informing Moshe that even though He had appointed him 'Elohim' to Pharaoh, He was 'Havayah' for him too.

4.

Targum Yonasan: In order to inform Moshe that He had not changed His mind; and that, in spite of what it seemed to Moshe, He was still the same G-d of mercy who appeared to him at the burning bush by the Name 'Havayah.' 3

5.

Oznayim la'Torah #1: Because Moshe was close to Hashem like a son to his father, Hashem rebuked him, and immediately softened His stance. 4

6.

Oznayim la'Torah #2: Following in the footsteps of the Goyim, Yisrael in Egypt thought that there was a god of good and a god of evil, and that consequently, the same G-d who had responded to Moshe's request by making matters worse, could not possibly bring about their redemption. Therefore Elokim spoke to Moshe and said, "Ani Hashem!" - indicating that He is at one and the same time, the G-d of Din and the G-d of Rachamim. 5


1

Rashi: Consequently, He did not send Moshe in vain, but to indeed carry out the promise that He had made to the Avos (who went in His ways), that He would redeem their children.

2

Oznayim la'Torah: This is because the Name Havayah stands for 'Hayah, Hoveh v'Yihyeh,' which in turn, teaches us that Hashem can be relied upon to keep His promise, since He will always be there - as opposed to anybody else, who is here today, gone tomorrow. See Tehilim 146:3-7.

3

See Na'ar Yonasan.

4

Oznayim la'Torah: Like Hashem said to Choni ha'Me'agel, when he spoke disrespectfully to Him - 'I ought to place upon you a Niduy, but what can I do, you are like a son who sins to his father and his father forgives him' (see Ta'anis 19a).

5

Oznayim la'Torah: And He instructed Moshe to pass on the message to Yisrael, thereby keeping alive their faith in the Ge'ulah.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

3)

Rashi writes: "'Va'Yedaber Elokim El Moshe...' - He spoke unto him Mishpat (in judgement), for having spoken harshly (against Hashem)...." What does Rashi mean by the word "Mishpat"? If it means a verdict of punishment, where do we find that Moshe was punished?

1.

Gur Aryeh: The punishment was already alluded to in the preceding verse, "'What befalls Pharaoh' you shall see; but you will not merit to see what befalls the seven nations of Kena'an!" (Rashi to 6:1). 1 Our verse means that Hashem rebuked Moshe, saying, "I did not send you for naught!" (Rashi below).


1

I.e., Moshe would not merit to enter the Land and witness its conquest.

4)

Rashi writes: "He spoke unto him Mishpat, for having spoken harshly (against Hashem), when he said, 'Why have You made it worse for this nation?' (5:22)." Mizrachi asks - Rashi (in his comments to 6:9) tells us that in the Midrashic sense, this section comes in response to what Moshe had said just before (yet Rashi himself finds this difficult). But our Rashi seems to present this approach as Peshat! Furthermore, was Hashem responding to Moshe's first question, "why have You made it worse" (5:22) - or, as the next comment in Rashi implies, to his second question, "... why have You sent me" (ibid.)?

1.

Mizrachi: In the Peshat approach of Rashi, our Pasuk concludes the response to Moshe's complaint. Hashem spoke in judgement against Moshe (Rashi), and hinted to the penalty of not entering the Land (Rashi to 6:1) - because Moshe said, "Why have You made it worse etc." (5:22). The second phrase, "I am Hashem," is the response to, "why have You sent me" (ibid). The next Pasuk, "Va'era El Avraham, etc." (6:3) moves on to another matter - 'I sent you in order to fulfill My promise to the Avos....' 1

2.

Gur Aryeh: The novelty in the Midrashic approach, is that the introductory verses of our section are rebuke; they are not at all connected to the following message, "Therefore, say to Bnei Yisrael [... the four expressions of Geulah]" (6:6-8). In the Peshat sense, the verses relate both to what comes before and after, just as all the sections of the Torah are in meaningful sequence. As for which complaint Hashem was addressing, see the following answer (6:2:1.3:1 and its note).


1

Only in the Midrashic sense, is verse 6:3 the continuation of Hashem's response to Moshe (as Rashi to 6:9 presents). However, see Gur Aryeh's objection to Mizrachi's approach.

5)

Rashi writes: "I am Hashem - [I am] reliable to give reward... and I did not send you for nothing!" Mizrachi asks - Rashi to 5:22 understood Moshe's words "Why did You send me" (5:22) as a complaint, not a question; if so, why is Hashem 'answering' it?

1.

Gur Aryeh: Rather, this too 1 came in response to Moshe's first claim, "Why have You made it worse" (5:22); i.e., 'My mission has accomplished nothing!' Hashem responded, 'Your mission is not for naught!'


1

According to Gur Aryeh (to 5:22), Rashi understands Moshe's response not as two questions, but one - "... and should You say, 'What difference is it to you?', I have a complaint that You sent me!" (Rashi to 5:22; refer to 5:22:2.2:1). Also see Mizrachi to 5:22. This distinction sheds light on the comments of Gur Aryeh and Mizrachi to our Pasuk. (EK)

6)

Rashi writes: "'I am Hashem' - Reliable to give reward... to fulfill My word that I spoke to the early forefathers (Avos ha'Rishonim)." Why the extra word "early"?

1.

Gur Aryeh: This is precisely what shows Hashem's faithfulness; He fulfills for the descendants, what He promised to their forefathers long ago.

7)

Rashi writes: "'I am Hashem' - Reliable to give reward... to fulfill My word....' How does the Name Havayah indicate this Midah, Hashem's truthfulness to fulfill His promise?

1.

Gur Aryeh #1: The Gematriya of the Name as it is written (26), and how it is pronounced (65), equals the Gematriya of 'Amen' (91). 1

2.

Gur Aryeh #2: The name incorporates 'Hayah, Hoveh, v'Yihyeh' - Hashem was, is, and will be. He exists in all times, as one constant; He does not change His mind. Therefore, He is trustworthy to fulfill His promise.

3.

Gur Aryeh #3: The Unique Name indicates His true Self; 2 as the Pasuk says "Va'Hashem Elokim Emes" (Yirmeyahu 10:10). It indicates His truthfulness; no creature will be left with a claim against Hashem for a good deed that was left unpaid. 3


1

To perhaps explain (based on Pesachim 50a) - At present, there is a difference between how Hashem's Name is written, and how it is pronounced (because we perceive a difference between Hashem's guidance of the world through Rachamim, or through Din; refer to 3:15:3.2:1 and its note). But in the World-to-Come, "Hashem will be one, and His Name, one!" (Zecharyah 14:9) (and we will be able to recite ha'Tov v'ha'Meitiv over all events- See Pesachim 50a; and refer to 3:15:3.1:1 and its note). When the two modes of conduct converge, the world will be rectified; revealing that Hashem was faithful to fulfill his promise to bring the world to its goal. We may add that 'Amen' is the initials of "Kel Melech Ne'eman.' (EK) Also see Maharal (Nesivos Olam, Nesiv ha'Avodah Ch. 11, p. 110; and Chidushei Agados Vol. 1, p. 64, to Shabbos 119b).

2

All other Names of Hashem indicate specific Midos through which Hashem runs the world. Only this Specific Name directly expresses how He reveals Himself towards His creations. (EK) Also refer to 3:14:1.2:2*.

3

For example, when a creditor has an unpaid debt, he "owns" a portion of his debtor, leaving the latter deficient. The same is true (so to speak) of how Hashem acts towards His creations. Because His existence is true and of necessity; it is impossible that He should be left in debt to another. (EK)

8)

Rashi writes: "'I am Hashem' - Reliable to give reward... to fulfill My word....' What is the meaning in the Name Havayah?

1.

Maharal (Derush Al ha'Teshuvah, p. 79): The four letters of Hashem's Name correspond to four ways we may describe and recognize Hashem's existence. a. Hashem is corporeal; He has no Guf or physical dimensions. This is represented by letter Yud, with no minimum width or height. 1 b. His existence is necessity. 2 The name of letter 'Hei' means, 'there you have it!' - an existing entity. c. Hashem is eternal, with no beginning or end. The Vav is straight; and a straight line has no endpoints. 3 d. Everything else that exists, gets its existence from Him. The second letter Hei indicates this. 4

2.

Also refer to our comments to Shemos 3:15 (3:15:1:5 thru 3:15:1.04).


1

A flat area has two dimensions, and an object has three. The letter Yud is conceptually just a point. Mathematically speaking, a point is infinitesimally small, with no dimensional space. (EK)

2

The existence of everything else is dependent upon Him; whereas the existence of Hashem depends upon no one else. (EK)

4

As above, the letter Hei represents existence.

9)

Rashi writes that Hashem spoke to Moshe with Mishpat (Midas ha'Din). What is his source?

1.

Mizrachi #1: "Elokim" means "a judge." It is also Midas ha'Din.

2.

Da'as Zekenim, Moshav Zekenim and Mizrachi #2, citing Makos 11a: "Va'Yedaber" implies harsh 1 speech.

3.

Gur Aryeh: The source is not from the term Dibur alone. 2 The term 'Dibur' can indicate - a. harsh speech; i.e. using one's voice powerfully, and clearly expressing one's intent by using carefully selected words; b. or, it can mean words spoken face-to face (which are heard clearly). 3 When the term 'Dibur' is followed by the term 'Amirah' (e.g., in the common example, "va'Yedaber Hashem... Leimor" (6:10)), it usually means (b), speaking face-to face; 4 but when the term Dibur is used alone, it is harsh (a). Our Pasuk (despite its use of the term "va'Yomer") opens with "Va'Yedaber Elokim" - Hashem's Name that indicates Midas ha'Din. 5 It means that He spoke to Moshe using clear expression - which is necessary when passing judgement. 6


1

Ta'anis 30b: Until Dor ha'Midbar died out (as was decreed after the Meraglim), Hashem's Dibur was not Misyached with Moshe. But Rashi (to Devarim 2:16) cites as a source, that during that period the text does not say 'va'Yedaber,' which is an expression of Chibah (endearment)! Moshav Zekenim - Only 'va'Yedaber Elokim' is harsh. Bartenura (to 32:7) - When it says "va'Yedaber... Leimor," it is not harsh. (Compare to Gur Aryeh's approach in Answer #3.) Keli Yakar (to Devarim 2:16) - Va'Yedaber is harsh rebuke. Hashem rebukes one whom He loves (Mishlei 3:12).

2

Gur Aryeh: The term "va'Yedaber" is used countless times in the Torah without any indication of Mishpat. The same is true of the Name "Elokim" taken by itself.

3

Gur Aryeh (to Devarim 2:16): The term Dibur implies the act of enunciation, whereas Amirah relates to the content that is being conveyed (Also see Maharal (Derech Chayim to Avos 5:1)). Dibur is attributed to the speaker [alone], spoken 'straight from his mouth;' whereas Amirah also relates to the listener, who must put together the verbal input in order to receive the message. (EK)

4

Gur Aryeh: The use of the term Amirah indicates that the listener received it gently; such that it could not have been said harshly. An example is found in Rashi to Devarim 2:16-17 - After the generation of the Desert died out, Hashem once again spoke (va'Yedaber) to Moshe affectionately, face-to face.

5

To summarize the approach of Gur Aryeh - The term Dibur can indicate harsh speech; and the Name Elokim means Midas ha'Din. Had the Pasuk used only one of these terms, e.g. 'va'Yomer Elokim,' or even 'va'Yedaber Hashem... Leimor,' we would make no inference. Because it says "Va'Yedaber Elokim," Chazal interpreted it as Mishpat. The next phrase, "va'Yomer Eilav," will stand independently. (EK)

6

Maharal (Nesivos Olam, Nesiv ha'Din, beg. Ch. 2, p. 190): A judgement, by definition, must be both clear and obvious.

10)

Rashi writes that here, the Name Havayah alludes to "faithfulness to reward." But based on context, he should say that it refers to faithfulness to punish - since it is written next to the Name "Elokim" (which indicates Mishpat)?

1.

Moshav Zekenim #1: "Va'Yomer Elav" separates Shem Havayah from Elokim.

2.

Moshav Zekenim #2: "Va'Yomer" is an expression of Chibah (endearment).

3.

Because the Torah writes "Elokim" in connection with Moshe, but the main message was in connection with Yisrael - Refer to 6:2:2:1.

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