If a Chayah (which one is not obligated to feed), is permitted to eat, why does the Torah find it necessary to add "Beheimah" (which one is)?
Rashi #1 and Ramban (both citing the Sifra): The Torah is comparing Beheimah to Chayah, in that, as long as the Chayah is able to find any particular species in the field, one is permitted to feed one's Beheimah in the house that species. 1
Rashi #2 (in Shabbos, 68a): The Pasuk teaches us that the Dinim of Sh'mitah extend to animal fodder.
Ramban: But once it is no longer available in the field, one is obligated to clear it out of the house and declare it Hefker, a procedure that the Chachamim call 'Bi'ur Shevi'is' (See Ramban, who elaborates at length).
What are the implications of the words "Asher be'Artzecha"?
Shevi'is, 6:4: It implies that one may not take Sh'mitah produce out of Eretz Yisrael.
What are the imlications of the (otherwise superfluous) word "Tih'yeh Kol Tevu'asah ... " and not 'Tochal Kol Tevu'asah')?
Bava Kama, 101b: It teaches us that a garment that is dyed with peels of Sh'mitah-friit must be burned (when the time of Biy'ur arrives) - because 'be'Havayasah T'hei' - even though the peels themselves are no .longer there, Kedushas Shevi'is remains in the dye.
Shevi'is, 7:1: It teaches us that the fruit of Sh'mitah may be used - not only for eating, but - even as fuel or as a dye. 1
Why does the Torah add the word "Kol Tevu'asah"?
Yerushalmi Shevi'is, 4:6: To teach us that there are two produces - one that one may eat even in the house and one only in the field. 1
Sifra: To teach us that one may only eat Peiros Shevi'is after they have grown 'Kol Tevu'asah' 2 (to the point that they are subject to Ma'asros). 3
Oznayim la'Torah (citing the Tosefta): To teach us that, although it is forbidden to feed an animal human food, 4 if an animal wants to est a fig in the Sh'mitah, we are not obligated to stop it.
Why does the Torah write "Kol Tevu'asah" and not 'Kol Peirosehah'?
Sifra: To teach us that one is only permitted to eat it once it becomes 'Tevu'ah' (it is ripe). 1
Because, otherwise eating it before that spoils the fruit. Refer to 25:2:2.2:1 and see Torah Temimah, note 37.
Why does the Torah reserve an independent Pasuk for Beheimah and Chayah? Why does it not include them in the previous Pasuk?
Oznayim la'Torah (citing Chazal): To teach us that the food of humans is not the same as that of animals, and that it is therefore forbidden to feed human food to animals in the Shemitah. 1
Due to the prohibition of destroying Sh'mitah-produce. Refer to 25:6:2.2:1*. See also Oznayim la'Torah.
