What is this Pasuk coming to teach us that we cannot learn from the previous Pasuk (See Rashi there)?
Rashi #1: It teaches us that the prohibition is confined to treating the crops as an owner, but does not extend to eating them. 1
Rashi #2 (in Yoma, 86b and in Rosh Hashanah, 22a): It teaches us that one may eat Shemitah produce, but not waste it or commercialize it.
Provided one declares them Hefker. See Sifsei Chachamim.
What are the implications of the words "Shabbas ha'Aretz"?
Rashi: They imply that one may only eat from what is Hefker, 1 but not from what is guarded.
Ramban, Moshav Zekenim: The repose of the land mentioned earlier 2 , or the produce of the Shabbos year, shall be for you all as livelihood, for you, your servants, your animals and Chayos of the land.
What are the implications of "le'Ochlah"?
Why does the Torah say "Lecha ul'Avdecha
Rashi: To teach us that the Heter to eat Shemitah produce extends to the wealthy (even one who has slaves). Since it says (Shemos 23:11) "v'Achlu Evyonei Amecha", we would have thought that only the poor are allowed to eat it 1
See Sifsei Chachamim. Riva: "v'Achlu Evyonei Amecha" teaches that the poor may eat after Bi'ur, but the wealthy may not.
Who is meant by "Sechircha" and "Toshavcha"?
Rashi writes that also the wealthy may eat. One opinion (in Yerushalmi Shevi'is 9:8) forbids Ashirim after Bi'ur. How can he explain the verse?
Moshav Zekenim citing Toras Kohanim: Some say that the verse discusses before Bi'ur, and the argument is about after Bi'ur.