1)
Why does the Torah write "Vaye'sar lo" and not 'Vaye'asar lahem"?
1.
Rashi: Because Hashem only answered the Tefilos of Yitzchak, but not of Rivkah - "Lo", 've'Lo lah'.
2.
Refer to 25:21:1.2:2 & 3.
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PROJECT MAFTEACH
Index to Torah and Rashi Commentaries
Index to Torah and Rashi Commentaries
bereishis
Chapter 24, Pasuk 21
Chapter 24, Pasuk 21
