1)
Why does the Torah write ?Vaye?sar lo? and not ?Vaye?asar lahem??
1.
Rashi: Because Hashem only answered the Tefilos of Yitzchak, but not of Rivkah ? ?Lo?, ?ve?Lo lah?.
2.
Refer to 25:21:1.2:2 & 3.
Why does the Torah write ?Vaye?sar lo? and not ?Vaye?asar lahem??
Rashi: Because Hashem only answered the Tefilos of Yitzchak, but not of Rivkah ? ?Lo?, ?ve?Lo lah?.
Refer to 25:21:1.2:2 & 3.