To whom does "Oyev" refer?
Rashi and Targum Yonasan: It refers to Pharaoh, who was convincing his people to follow him into battle, by promising them to divide the spoils 1 equally with them. 2
Why is this Pasuk written here and not at the beginning of the Shirah, since it refers to the enemy's initial thought in pursuing Yisrael?
Ramban #1 (citing Midrash Chazis), Targum Onkelos) and Targum Yonasan: Because of the principle 'Ein Mukdam u'Me'uchar ba'Torah' (Torah is not always written in the chronological order).
Ramban #2 and Rashbam 1 : Because the decision to chase after Yisrael to fight them and to capture the spoils was made when the Egyptians saw that the sea had split and the sea-bed had dried. 2
Refer to 15:9:1:2** .
What is the meaning of "Torisheimo Yadi"?
Rashi: It means, 'My hand will impoverish them.'
Targum Onkelos: It means, 'My hand will destroy them.'
Targum Yonasan: It means, 'I will destroy them with my right hand.'
What idea is this verse adding?
Maharal (Gevuros Hashem Ch. 47, p. 190): The Egyptians planned to strike with force and alacrity, saying "I will chase and overtake [them]!" When a swiftly-running warrior confronts an enemy, he is not an easy target; he will at the very least stand his ground. But here, Hashem sent the Egyptians sinking to the depths, as fast as lead (15:10) - showing them that human strength and speed amounts to nothing. 1
Thus, the progression of the verses is as follows - Hashem struck the Egyptians a mighty blow, and they descended like a rock (15:5); despite this being unnecessary, seeing as they were consumed like straw (15:7); because they were attacking Yisrael with alacrity, Hashem likewise responded swiftly.
What are the implications of the phrase, "Achalek Shalal"?
Rashi (to 14:6): It implies that Pharaoh would take an equal share of the booty with the people - as opposed to other kings, who take first, as much as they want.
Mechilta: It implies that Pharaoh would open his treasury and distribute [to all those who would fight] silver, gold, precious stones and pearls.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "'Arik Charbi' - Should you say that 'to empty' can relate only to the vessel and not to its contents; and [instead] give the forced explanation that 'Arik' means, 'I will arm Myself with My sword,' as in Bereishis 14:14...." Why would that be a forced explanation?
Gur Aryeh: If that was the meaning, our verse would say 'Arik b'Charbi' - with the Beis prefix to mean "with." 1
Also see Mizrachi to Bereishis 14:14 .
Rashi writes: "'Arik Charbi' - Should you say... the forced explanation, that 'Arik' means, 'I will arm Myself with My sword' ...." But Rashi himself, in his comments to Bereishis 14:14, gives that very explanation!
Gur Aryeh (to Bereishis 14:14): Because the Torah chooses to write "Arik" (and not 'Eshlof'), the word carries both meanings - to empty, and to arm. We find that the Torah often uses terms that convey a double meaning.
