1)

(a)In the third answer, we differentiate (with regard to Nega'im taking effect) between a Shul in a village and a Shul in a large city. What is the difference between them?

(b)Why does the Tana Kama of the Beraisa hold that the houses in Yerushalayim were not subject to Nega'im?

(c)What does Rebbi Yehudah say, and how does this present us with a Kashya on what we said in a.? How do we subtly amend Rebbi Yehudah's statement to resolve this difficulty?

1)

(a)In the third answer, we establish the first Beraisa even according to the Chachamim, by a Shul in a village (even when there is no built-in residence for the Shamash), and the reason that it is subject to Nega'im - is because its owners are definable, whereas those of a Shul in a large city, which is also frequented by people from other towns, are not. That is why it is Patur. (Note: Rashi differentiates between the Beis Hamikdash, which we learnt above, is Patur because it is not called a 'Bayis', and a Shul, which apparently, is - though the difference is unclear.)

(b)The Tana Kama of the Beraisa holds that the houses in Yerushalayim were not subject to Nega'im - because Yerushalayim was not distributed to the tribes (i.e. it belonged to all the tribes, and did not therefore, fall under the category of "b'Veis Eretz Achuzaschem").

(c)Rebbi Yehudah heard that it was only the Beis Hamikdash that was not subject to Tum'as Nega'im, implying that Shuls and Batei Medrash in Yerushalayim, were, a Kashya on what we said in (a) that Shuls in big cities are not subject to Nega'im.

2)

(a)If, as the Tana of the Beraisa says, the Har-Habayis and the Azaros (leading from the east) - were situated in Yehudah's portion, where did Binyamin's portion (which included the Ulam, the Heichal and the Kodesh Kodshim), begin?

(b)What do we learn from the Pasuk in v'Zos ha'Berachah "Chofef Alav Kol ha'Yom"?

(c)What reward did Binyamin receive for his jealousy?

2)

(a)According to the Tana of the Beraisa, the Har-Habayis and the Azaros (leading from the east) - were situated in Yehudah's portion. Binyamin's portion (which included the Ulam, the Heichal and the Kodesh Kodshim) - began from the beginning of the Mizbe'ach.

(b)We learn from the Pasuk in v'Zos ha'Berachah "Chofef Alav Kol ha'Yom" - that Binyamin was eager to re-gain the small section of the Mizbe'ach that he had lost to Yehudah (like a person scratches himself in frustration, when he cannot obtain what he desperately wants).

(c)His reward was that the Shechinah rested in his portion alone, as the Torah continues "u'Vein Keseifav Shachen".

3)

(a)Who is the author of the above Beraisa?

(b)And who is the author of the Beraisa which forbids house-owners in Yerushalayim to take rent from their guests?

(c)Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Tzadok is even more stringent than that. What does he say?

(d)In lieu of their free sleeping accommodation, Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Tzadok permits the host to take the skins of the guest's sacrifices (Kodshim Kalim) by force. What was the normal procedure with regard to the skins and the empty wine-jars of the guests?

3)

(a)The author of the above Beraisa is Rebbi Yehudah, who holds that Yerushalayim was distributed among the tribes.

(b)And the author of the Beraisa which forbids house-owners in Yerushalayim to take rent from their guests - is the Rabanan, who say that it was not.

(c)According to Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Tzadok, the house-owner was not even permitted to take rent for the bed on which his guests slept (because the ground on which the bed was lying did not belong to him; so, short of picking up the bed, there was no way that the guest could acquire the bed to give him the Din of a hirer - Minchas Bikurim.

(d)In lieu of their free sleeping accommodation, Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Tzadok permits the host to take the skins of the guest's sacrifices (Kodshim Kalim) by force. The normal procedure was for the guest to offer the skins and the empty wine-jars to their hosts - voluntarily.

4)

(a)What is the problem with regard to the deputy Kohen Gadol standing in for the Kohen Gadol, if the latter became Tamei only after the Tamid shel Shachar?

(b)Why is there no problem if he became Tamei before the Tamid shel Shachar?

(c)What does the Gemara mean when it answers 'be'Avnet'?

(d)What is the problem with this answer?

4)

(a)The problem with regard to the deputy standing in for the Kohen Gadol if the latter became Tamei only after the Tamid shel Shachar - is that, seeing as he now had to serve with only the four garments of a Kohen Hedyot (for the Avodas Yom-Kipur), how was he initiated?

(b)There is no problem if he became Tamei before the Tamid shel Shachar - because then, he would have been initiated by wearing the eight garments when he brought the Tamid.

(c)The Gemara answers 'be'Avnet' - meaning that, even if he wore only the four garments of a Kohen Hedyot, it would still be noticeable that he was a Kohen Gadol (the criterion for being initiated) - because his belt contained Kil'ayim (whereas that of the Kohen Hedyot did not).

(d)The problem with this answer is that it will make no sense according to those who hold that the belt of the Kohen Hedyot was the same as that of the Kohen Gadol.

5)

(a)We finally give two answers to explain how the deputy is initiated: Abaye says that he wears the eight garments and stokes the ashes on the Ma'arachah. Since when is stirring the ashes an Avodah?

(b)Rav Papa says 'Avodaso Mechanchaso'. What does that mean? What is his source for that?

5)

(a)Abaye explains that he wears the eight garments and stokes the ashes on the Ma'arachah. This is considered an Avodah - based on what Rav Huna said, that a Zar who stoked the ashes on the Ma'arachah is Chayav Misah.

(b)Rav Papa says 'Avodaso Mechanchaso', providing us with a third method of initiating a Kohen Gadol (in addition to being anointed with the anointing oil and wearing the eight garments). The performing of an Avodah (for which a Kohen Hedyot is not eligible) itself, initiates the Kohen Gadol. Rav Papa's source is the Beraisa which informs us that although the holy vessels that Moshe made were initiated through the anointing oil, from then on, new vessels that were subsequently made were initiated by being used for the Avodah (and if that is sufficient to initiate a vessel, why should it not also be sufficient to initiate a Kohen).

12b----------------------------------------12b

6)

(a)Is there any difference between a Kohen Hedyot's belt on Yom Kipur and the one that he wore during the rest of the year?

(b)'Ein Bein Kohen Gadol l'Kohen Hedyot Ela Avnet', Divrei Rebbi. Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon Omer, Af Lo Avnet'. This Beraisa proves Rav Dimi's statement (that whether the Kohen Hedyot's belt contained Kil'ayim - like the Kohen Gadol's - or not, is a Machlokes between Rebbi and Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon). How do we attempt to prove from there that Rebbi is the one who holds that the Kohen Hedyot's belt was of Kil'ayim, and Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon, of linen? Why do we think that the Tana must be speaking about Yom Kipur, and not the rest of the year?

(c)How do we refute that suggestion, and establish the Beraisa during the rest of the year? Rebbi clarifies the doubt that Rav Dimi left us with. What do Rebbi and Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon respectively hold, according to him?

6)

(a)There is no difference between the belt that the Kohen Hedyot's wore on Yom Kipur and the one that he wore during the rest of the year.

(b)We thought that the Beraisa ('Ein Bein Kohen Gadol l'Kohen Hedyot Ela Avnet', Divrei Rebbi. Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon Omer, Af Lo Avnet') must be speaking about Yom Kipur - because, during the year, there is another distinction that the Tana ought to have listed: namely, that whereas a Kohen Gadol wears eight garments, a Kohen Hedyot wears only four. In that case, we have a proof that the Kohen Hedyot's belt throughout the year comprised Kil'ayim, just like the Kohen Gadol's (and it is on Yom Kipur, when the Kohen Gadol wore only white, that their belts differed); whereas according to Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon, their belts were different on Yom Kipur, but the same during the rest of the year.

(c)We refute that suggestion, and establish the Beraisa during the rest of the year (in which case Rebbi will be the one who holds that their belts differed during the year, and Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon, that they were the same). As far as the basis of our original contention is concerned, the Beraisa is only concerned with pointing out the differences between those garments which all the Kohanim wore (but not, with the garments which only the Kohen Gadol wore).

7)

(a)The Torah writes in Parshas Tzav (in connection with the Terumas ha'Deshen ) "v'Lavash ha'Kohen Mido Vad, u'Michnesei Vad Yilbash al Besaro". What does Rebbi Yehudah learn from the extra word "Yilbash"?

(b)Rebbi Dosa derives from there a Halachah connected with the Kohen Gadol's Yom Kipur garments. What is it?

(c)What objection does Rebbi raise that proves Ravin's statement?

(d)What is his second objection?

7)

(a)Rebbi Yehudah learns from the extra word "Yilbash" (in the Pasuk "v'Lavash ha'Kohen Mido Vad, u'Michnesei Vad Yilbash al Besaro") - that the Kohen is Chayav to wear, not only the shirt and the trousers, (which the Torah specifically mentions) but also the hat and the belt.

(b)Rebbi Dosa derives from "Yilbash" that a Kohen Hedyot is permitted to wear the four garments worn by the Kohen Gadol on Yom Kipur.

(c)Rebbi objects to Rebbi Dosa's Derashah on the grounds that the Kohen Gadol's (linen) belt on Yom Kipur was not the same as that of the Kohen Hedyot, which consisted of Kil'ayim - which is exactly what Ravin said.

(d)Rebbi also objects on the grounds that it was not possible for those garments that were worn by the Kohen Gadol on Yom Kipur, and with which he served in the Kodesh Kodshim, to be used later by a Kohen Hedyot, for an Avodah which was less holy.

8)

(a)What does Rebbi then learn from "Yilbash"?

(b)How do we know that this concession is not confined to the Terumas ha'Deshen, where it is written?

8)

(a)Rebbi learns from "Yilbash" that although torn garments may not be worn for the Avodah, worn-out garments may (see Tosfos DH 'Yilbash').

(b)There is no reason why this concession should be confined to the Terumas ha'Deshen (comprising the daily removal of one shovelful of ashes from the Mizbe'ach), which is no different than any other Avodah. Nor can one compare it to the Din of wearing old clothes for the removal of the ashes from the Mizbe'ach, because, since that entailed carrying out all the ashes, it would make the Kohen and his clothes grimy, which is not the case here.

9)

(a)What does the Tana Kama of another Beraisa learn from the Pasuk in Acharei-Mos "v'Hinicham Sham"?

(b)How does Rebbi Dosa (who permits a Kohen Hedyot to wear the garments that the Kohen Gadol wore on Yom Kipur) explain it?

9)

(a)The Tana Kama of the Beraisa learns from "v'Hinicham Sham" - that the garments of the Kohen Gadol after the Avodah on Yom Kipur, required Genizah (hiding).

(b)Rebbi Dosa (who permits a Kohen Hedyot to wear the garments that the Kohen Gadol had worn) learns from there that these garments may not be worn again by the Kohen Gadol, on another Yom Kipur.

10)

(a)According to Rebbi Meir, the deputy Kohen Gadol retains the status of a Kohen Gadol, even after the return of the original Kohen Gadol. Besides the fact that he shows none of the signs of mourning when his relations die, what other two ramifications does this statement have?

(b)Rebbi Yosi disagrees. What does he say?

(c)Why does he not return to his former status of Kohen Hedyot?

(d)Then why should he not retain the status of Kohen Gadol?

10)

(a)According to Rebbi Meir, the deputy retains the status of a Kohen Gadol even after the return of the original Kohen Gadol. Besides the fact that he shows none of the signs of mourning when his relations die - he is also forbidden to marry a widow and is obligated to wear the eight garments whenever he does the Avodah.

(b)According to Rebbi Yosi, the stand-in Kohen Gadol does not regain his previous status of Kohen Hedyot, nor does he retain his new status of Kohen Gadol.

(c)He does not regain his previous status of Kohen Hedyot - because of the principle 'Ma'alin ba'Kodesh v'Lo Moridin' (one can be promoted in levels of Kedushah, but not demoted).

(d)Sure he ought to remain a Kohen Gadol, as Rebbi Meir indeed holds. Chazal however decreed, that he should not, in order to avoid the enmity of the Kohen Gadol.

11)

(a)The Halachah is like Rebbi Yosi. What will be the Din if the demoted deputy does serve as Kohen Gadol? Will the Avodah be valid or not?

(b)When the Kohen Gadol dies, even Rebbi Yosi agrees that he automatically succeeds him. Why would we have thought otherwise?

11)

(a)According to Rebbi Yochanan, even Rebbi Yosi will agree that, should the deputy perform in the capacity of Kohen Gadol, the Avodah is Kasher.

(b)And when the Kohen Gadol dies, even Rebbi Yosi agrees that he automatically succeeds him. We might otherwise have thought that he would not - because, in that case, he will still arouse the enmity of the Kohen Gadol, who will feel during his life-time, that the deputy is waiting for him to die.

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