What does Rav mean when, based on the Pasuk in Zecharyah "Madu'a Shovevah ha'Am ha'Zeh Yerushalayim, Meshuvah Nitzachas", he says that K'lal Yisrael had an irrefutable reply to the Navi's call to do Teshuvah, because 'Where were their fathers who had sinned?'?
What did they retort?
What made them nevertheless retract and admit that the Navi was right (see Agados Maharsha)?
According to Shmuel, their irrefutable reply took the form of ten men who came and sat before the Navi. What did they claim (in connection with a master who had sold his servant)?
What was the Navi's reply to that?
When, based on the Pasuk in Zecharyah "Madu'a Shovevah ha'Am ha'Zeh Yerushalayim, Meshuvah Nitzachas", Rav says that K'lal Yisrael had an irrefutable reply to the Navi's call to do Teshuvah, because 'Where were their fathers who had sinned?', he meant clearly sin causes death.
To which they retorted - Where were the Nevi'im, who did not sin?
They nevertheless retracted and admitted that the Navi was right - when he explained that whereas the sinners had left no trace of their whereabouts, the graves of the Nevi'im were known (Agados Maharsha).
According to Shmuel, their irrefutable reply took the form of ten men who came and sat before the Navi - claiming that Hash-m had sold them (to Nevuchadnetzar), and once a master sells his slave, he has no more claim on him.
In reply - the Navi quoted Yeshayah, who already asked Yisrael to produce documented evidence of their sale.
Which Pasuk did Resh Lakish quote from Yirmiyah to support the Navi? How did Yirmiyah refer to Nevuchadnetzar?
What did Yechezkel, quoting Hash-m Himself, have to say about those people who insisted that Hash-m did indeed sell Yisrael, and that they were now free of His yoke?
And what did Rav Nachman comment on that ('Kol ki Hai Rischa ... ')?
Rabah bar bar Chanah explains a Pasuk in Yeshayah. What did Yisrael answer when the Navi told them ...
... to do Teshuvah?
... to keep their Yeitzer-ha'Ra in check?
In support of the Navi, Resh Lakish quotes from Yirmiyah - who referred to Nevuchadnetzar as "Avdi" (the same title as Moshe and David!), which he did in order to counter Yisrael's anticipated claim that they had been sold, based on the principle 'Whatever a slave acquires belongs to his master'.
About those people who insisted that Hash-m did indeed sell Yisrael, and that they were now free of His yoke, Yechezkel, quoting Hash-m Himself - thundered that this will never be, because if they attempt to be like the nations of the world, He will reign over them by force and with anger.
Rav Nachman commented on that - 'Let Hash-m only be angry with us, as long as he redeems us and rules over us'.
Rabah bar bar Chanah explains a Pasuk in Yeshayah. When the Navi told Yisrael ...
... to do Teshuvah, they replied that - they couldn't, because the Yeitzer-ha'Ra held them in his grip.
... to keep their Yeitzer-ha'Ra in check, they answered that - Hash-m should show them how. (Indeed, Chazal have taught, without Divine assistance, it is impossible to overcome him).
What is 'Bilam' the acronym of (besides 'Bala' [with an 'Ayin', meaning that he tried to destroy the people]), or "be'Lo Am" [with an 'Alef'], meaning that he has no portion in the people [Yisrael], in spite of his request "Tamos Nafshi Mos Yesharim")?
And what do we Darshen from "ben Be'or"?
Who, besides Lavan in the past, was he destined to become in the future?
Why, according to Rebbi Yochanan, did Bilam, in Balak, refer to himself as "b'no Be'or" (rather than 'ben Be'or')?
Besides 'Bala Am' ("Bala" with an 'Ayin', meaning that he tried to destroy the people), or "be'Lo Am" (with an 'Alef', meaning that he has no portion in the people [Yisrael], in spite of his request "Tamos Nafshi Mos Yesharim"), 'Bilam' is the acronym of - 'she'Balah (with a 'Hey') Am', meaning that he confused the people (like 'Bilbel Am') by Ba'al Pe'or (causing many to die, as we shall see shortly).
And from "ben Be'or" we Darshen - that he committed bestiality with his ass (since 'Be'or' means an ass).
Besides Lavan in the past, he was destined to become - Kushan Rishasayim, King of Aram Naharayim, an enemy of Yisrael in the time of the Shoftim.
Bilam referred to himself as "b'no Be'or" (rather than 'ben Be'or'), Rebbi Yochanan explains - because his father Be'or, was subordinate to him when it came to prophesy.
What do we extrapolate from the fact that specifically Bilam has no portion in Olam ha'Ba?
According to Rebbi Eliezer in a Beraisa, the Pasuk in Tehilim "Yashuvu Goyim li'She'olah" refers to the sinners of Yisrael who will go to Gehinom, and not receive a portion in Olam ha'Ba. To whom does "Kol Goyim Shechechei Elokim" then refer to?
How does Rebbi Yehoshua interpret the Pasuk?
Who is now the author of our Mishnah?
We extrapolate from the fact that specifically Bilam has no portion in Olam ha'Ba - that other Nochrim do (as we learned earlier in the Perek).
According to Rebbi Eliezer in a Beraisa, the Pasuk in Tehilim "Yashuvu Goyim li'She'olah" refers to the sinners of Yisrael who will go to Gehinom, and not receive a portion in Olam ha'Ba, whilst "Kol Goyim Shechechei Elokim" - refers to all the Nochrim (who 'forgot Hashem').
Whereas according to Rebbi Yehoshua - the Seifa (which writes not 'be'Chol Goyim ... ', but) "Kol Goyim ... ", merely comes to explain the Reisha, in which case, it is only the Nochrim who have forgotten Hash-m who therefore have no portion in Olam ha'Ba.
The author of our Mishnah is therefore - Rebbi Yehoshua.
What did Bilam mean when he said "Tamos Nafshi Mos Yesharim, u'Sehi Acharisi Kamohu"?
The Torah describes how the elders of Midyan and Moav went to Bilam. How do we explain this in light of the fact that these two nation were always at war?
What Mashal do we give to two dogs?
And what adage did Rav Papa quote about a weasel and a cat, based on the same idea?
When Bilam said "Tamos Nafshi Mos Yesharim, u'Sehi Acharisi Kamohu", he meant that - if he died a normal death, he would live in Olam ha'Ba like Yisrael, but if not, then he wouldn't.
The Torah describes how the elders of Midyan and Mo'av went to Bilam. True, these two nation were always at war, but - when faced with the common enemy, Yisrael, they made a truce to get rid of them.
This can be compared to two dogs - who were forever fighting, but when they heard that there was a wolf in the vicinity, they made a truce to fight the wolf.
Rav Papa quoted the adage - that when a weasel and a cat arrange a joint party, it is a sign of trouble.
Why did only the elders of Mo'av remain with Bilam overnight? What happened to the elders of Midyan?
How does Rav Nachman explain the fact that Hash-m later permitted Bilam to accompany the elders of Moav, after having initially refused?
How does Rav Sheishes describe Chutzpah?
How does he prove it from the words of David Hamelech "ve'Anochi ha'Yom Rach u'Mashu'ach Melech, ve'ha'Anashim ha'Eileh ... Kashim Mimeni"? To which men was he referring?
Only the elders of Mo'av remained with Bilam overnight - because when Bilam told them that he had to consult Hash-m, the elders of Midyan (who knew about the Father/son relationship that existed between Hash-m and K'lal Yisrael) figured that no father hates his son, and that they were therefore wasting their time, so they went home.
According to Rav Nachman, Hash-m later relented and permitted Bilam to accompany the elders of Mo'av, after having initially refused - because Bilam had the Chutzpah to press his point, and sometimes Chutzpah wins the day (even with Hash-m).
Rav Sheishes describes Chutzpah as - a king without a crown.
And he proves it from the words of David Hamelech "ve'Anochi ha'Yom Rach u'Mashu'ach Melech, ve'ha'Anashim ha'Eileh (the sons of Tzeruyah) ... Kashim Mimeni" - implying that the only difference between him and the tough Yo'av and his brothers lay in the fact that he was crowned and they weren't.
How does Rebbi Yochanan explain the difference between the word "Shefi" (in the Pasuk in Balak [in connection with Bilam]) "Vayeilech Shefi") and the word "Shefifon" (in the Pasuk in Vay'chi [in connection with Shimshon]) "Shefifon alei Orach"?
And how does he explain the Pasuk in Balak ...
... "S'sum ha'Ayin"?
... "Nofeil u'Geluy Einayim" (based on the Pasuk in Esther "ve'Haman Nofeil al ha'Mitah")?
In a separate Machlokes, Mar Zutra agrees with Rebbi Yochanan's last statement. How does Mar b'rei de'Ravina interpret "Nofeil" (see Hagahos ha'G'ra), based on the Pasuk in Seifer Shoftim (in connection with Ya'el and Sisra) "Bein Raglehah Kara, Nafal, Shachav"?
Rebbi Yochanan explains that the Torah writes "Shefi" (in the Pasuk in Balak [in connection with Bilam]) "Vayeilech Shefi") and "Shefifon" (in the Pasuk in Vay'chi [in connection with Shimshon]) "Shefifon alei Orach"- indicating that whereas Bilam was lame in one leg, Shimshon was lame in both.
And he explains the Pasuk in Balak ...
... "S'sum ha'Ayin" to mean that - Bilam was also blind in one eye.
... "Nofeil u'Geluy Einayim" (based on the Pasuk in Esther "ve'Haman Nofeil al ha'Mitah") that - he used to perform wizardry with his male organ.
In a separate Machlokes, Mar Zutra agrees with Rebbi Yochanan's last statement. Based on the Pasuk in Seifer Shoftim (in connection with Ya'el and Sisra) "Bein Raglehah Kara, Nafal, Shachav", Mar b'rei de'Ravina interprets "Nofel" (see Hagahos ha'G'ra) to mean that - he committed bestiality with his ass (as we learned earlier).
What is strange about the description of Bilam "ve'Yode'a Da'as Elyon"?
What did Bilam reply when the men who were accompanying him asked him why he was riding on an ass and not on a horse?
And what did he reply when the ass asked him whether he was not ...
... his ass? ...
... on whom he rode?
The ass' final words on the matter were not very complimentary. Besides reminding Bilam that he had never ridden on any horse, what do we learn from the Gezeirah-Shavah "ha'Hasken Hiskanti" from "Vat'hi lo Sochenes" (in Melachim [in connection with Avishag ha'Shunamis and David Hamelech])?
The description of Bilam "ve'Yode'a Da'as Elyon" is strange - inasmuch as he did not even know the mind of his own ass, so how could he possibly know the mind of Hash-m?
When the men who were accompanying Bilam asked him why he was riding on an ass and not on a horse, he replied that - he had left his horse in the meadow to graze.
And he replied, when the ass asked him whether he was not ...
... his ass that - this was only for carrying loads.
... his ass on whom he rode, he replied that - this was only on odd occasions.
The ass' final words on the matter were not very complimentary. Besides reminding Bilam that he had never ridden on a horse, but only on her, we also learn from the Gezeirah-Shavah "ha'Hasken Hiskanti" from "Vat'hi lo Sochenes" (in Melachim [in connection with Avishag ha'Shunamis and David Hamelech]) that - he also enjoyed a more intimate relationship with her.
What does "ve'Yode'a Da'as Elyon" therefore mean?
How will this help us to understand the Pasuk in Michah "Ami Z'char na Mah Ya'atz Balak ... Lema'an Da'as Tzidkos Hash-m"?
What did that cause Bilam to declare to Balak?
And what do we learn from the Pasuk in Tehilim "Ki Rega be'Apo" to explain the Pasuk there "ve'Keil Zo'em be'Chol Yom"?
"ve'Yode'a Da'as Elyon" therefore means that - Bilam knew the exact moment that Hash-m was angry each morning.
And with this, we can understand the Pasuk in Michah "Ami Z'char na Mah Ya'atz Balak ... Lema'an Da'as Tzidkos Hash-m" - because the "Tzidkos Hash-m" refers to the entire period that Bilam was trying to curse Yisrael, during which time Hash-m (in His abundant kindness to Yisrael) controlled His anger ...
... causing Bilam to declare to Balak - "How can I evoke anger against the people, when Hash-m is not angry?"
From the Pasuk in Tehilim "Ki Rega be'Apo" - we extrapolate that the Pasuk there "ve'Keil Zo'em be'Chol Yom" lasts only a moment.
That moment would occur some time during the first three hours of the day. How does Rebbi Meir in a Beraisa, explain why Hash-m gets angry specifically then?
What sign did Hash-m plant in the creation to know when it arrived?
But does this not happen all the time?
That moment would occur some time during the first three hours of the day. Rebbi Meir in a Beraisa, explains that Hash-m gets angry specifically then - because that is when the kings put on their crowns and prostrate themselves before the rising sun.
The sign that Hash-m planted in the creation to know when that moment arrives is that - the bright red comb of a rooster turns (slightly) white.
Indeed, this happens all the time - but it is only at that given moment that it does not contain any bright red streaks.
Why did Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi tie a rooster to the leg of his bed?
Why did he not succeed?
What did he learn from there?
Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi tied a rooster to the leg of bed - to catch the right moment to curse a heretic who was causing him constant trouble.
He did not succeed - because he fell asleep at the crucial moment.
He learned from there - that it is not correct to bring punishment upon people, even when sorely provoked.
What does Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar in a Beraisa learn from the fact that ...
... Avraham arose early to go to the Akeidah?
... Bilam saddled his own ass to go and curse Yisrael?
What did Balak do to merit a descendant of the caliber of Rus?
What does Rav Yehudah Amar Rav learn from there?
What was the name of Rus' father?
Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar in a Beraisa learns from the fact that ...
... Avraham arose early to go to the Akeidah that - love causes people to behave irrationally.
... Bilam saddled his own ass to go and curse Yisrael - that hatred does, too.
To merit a descendant of the caliber of Rus - Balak brought a total of forty-two Korbanos (seven bulls and seven rams, three times) to Hash-m (albeit for the wrong motive).
Rav Yehudah Amar Rav learns from there that - one should make a point of studying Torah and performing Mitzvos, even for the wrong motive, because eventually, this will lead one to perform them for the right motive (though it is unclear how that reason applies to Balak).
The name of Rus' father was - Eglon Melech Mo'av (See Tosfos, Yevamos, 48b DH 'asher Ba's).
In answer to Rava's Kashya how Benayahu ben Yehoyadah could possible say to David "Yeitiv Elokim es Shem Shlomoh mi'Shimcha, ve'Yigdal es Kis'o mi'Kis'acha" (Melachim), Rabah bar Mari cited the Pasuk in Seifer Shoftim "Tevorach mi'Nashim, Ya'el, Eishes Chever ha'Keini". To which women does "mi'Nashim" refer?
Based on that Pasuk, how did Rabah bar Mari then interpret the Pasuk in Melachim?
Rebbi Yossi bar Choni however, learns the Pasuk in Melachim literally. What does he derive from ...
... there?
... the Pasuk also in Melachim (in connection with Elisha and Eliyahu) "Viy'hi na Pi Shenayim be'Ruchacha Eilai"?
Alternatively, he learns the latter Chidush from the Pasuk in Pinchas (in connection with Moshe and Yehoshua) "Vayismoch es Yadav alav Vayetzaveihu". What is the proof from there?
In answer Rava's Kashya how Benayahu ben Yehoyadah could possible say to David "Yeitiv Elokim es Shem Shlomoh mi'Shimcha, ve'Yigdal es Kis'o mi'Kis'acha" (Melachim), Rabah bar Mari cited the Pasuk in Seifer Shoftim "Tevorach mi'Nashim, Ya'el, Eishes Chever ha'Keini" - which refers to the Imahos, Sarah, Rivkah, Rachel and Leah.
Based on that Pasuk, Rabah bar Mari interprets the Pasuk in Melachim to mean (not that Shlomoh should be greater than David, but) that - he should be on a par with him (just as Devorah was placing Ya'el on a par with the Imahos, but not above them).
Rebbi Yossi bar Choni however, learns the Pasuk in Melachim literally. He learns from ...
... there that - a person is not jealous of his son.
... the Pasuk in Melachim (in connection with Elisha and Eliyahu) "Viy'hi na Pi Shenayim be'Ruchacha Eilai" that - he is not jealous of his Talmid either.
Alternatively, he learns the latter Chidush from the Pasuk (in connection with Moshe and Yehoshua) "Vayismoch es Yadav (in the plural) alav Vayetzaveihu" - even though Hash-m instructed him to place only one hand on him.
According to Rebbi Elazar "Vayasem Davar be'Fi Bilam" refers to an angel, who made sure that Bilam did not curse Yisrael. How does Rebbi Yonasan explain it?
When, in Parshas Balak, Bilam said "Mah Tovu ... ", "Mah Tovu Ohalecha Ya'akov, Mishkenosecha Yisrael", he had in mind to say that Yisrael should not have Batei K'nesiyos and Batei Medrashos. What did he mean when he said ...
... "ki'Nechalim Nitayu"?
... "ke'Ganos alei Nahar"?
... "ka'Ahalim Nata Hash-m"?
If "ka'Arazim alei Mayim" implies that Bilam did not want Yisrael to have kings of stature, and "Yizal Mayim mi'Dalyav" that their kings should not be sons of kings (there shouldn't be a dynasty), what can we infer from ...
... "ve'Zar'o be'Mayim Rabim"?
... "Veyarem me'Agag Malko"?
... "Vesinasei Malchuso"?
What does Rebbi Aba bar Kahana learn from the Pasuk in Ki Seitzei "Vayahafoch Hash-m Elokecha l'cha es ha'Kelalah li'Verachah ... "? What is the significance of the singular use of the word "ha'Kelalah"?
According to Rebbi Elazar "Vayasem Davar be'Fi Bilam" refers to an angel, who made sure that Bilam did not curse Yisrael, whereas according to Rebbi Yonasan - He placed a fish-hook in his mouth (to stop him from saying what he was not supposed to say).
When, in Parshas Balak, Bilam said "Mah Tovu ... ", "Mah Tovu Ohalecha Ya'akov, Mishkenosecha Yisrael", he meant that Yisrael should not have Batei K'nesiyos and Batei Medrashos. When he said ...
... "ki'Nechalim Nitayu", he meant that - the reign of their kings should not last long.
... "ke'Ganos alei Nahar" that - they should not have olive-groves and vineyards.
... "ka'Ahalim Nata Hash-m" that - they should not smell nice (from all their good deeds [see also Agados Maharsha]).
"ke'Arazim Alei Mayim" implies that Bilam did not want Yisrael to have kings of stature, and "Yizal Mayim mi'Dalyav" that their kings should not be sons of kings (there shouldn't be a dynasty), and we can infer from ...
... "ve'Zar'o be'Mayim Rabim" that - their kings should not rule over other nations.
... "Veyarem me'Agag Malko" that - they should not be powerful.
... "Vesinasei Malchuso" that - they should not be awesome.
Rebbi Aba bar Kahana learns from the Pasuk "Vayahafoch Hash-m Elokecha l'cha es ha'Kelalah li'Verachah ... " that - only one of the K'lalos (in fact, it is the first pair) was irreversibly changed into a blessing, namely that of the Batei-K'nesiyos and the Batei-Medrashos. All the others eventually turned into curses, as Bilam intended.
In what connection does Rebbi Yonasan interpret the Pasuk in Mishlei "Ne'emanim Pitz'ei Ohev ve'Ne'etaros Neshikos Sonei"? What does "Ne'etaros" mean?
We just learned that when Bilam blessed Yisrael, he compared them to a cedar-tree which (according to his intentions) does not grow beside water. To what did Achiyah ha'Shiloni compare them when he cursed them?
What two disadvantages does the cedar have compared to the cane, besides the fact that it does not grow beside water?
And what additional advantage does the cane have over the cedar?
Rebbi Yonasan interprets the Pasuk in Mishlei "Ne'emanim Pitz'ei Ohev ve'Ne'etaros Neshikos Sonei" to mean that - the curses of Achiyah ha'Shiloni, who loved Yisrael, are faithful, whereas the blessings of Bilam, who hated them, were overturned (and did not materialize).
We just learned that when Bilam blessed Yisrael, he compared them to a cedar which (according to his intentions) does not grow beside water. When, on the other hand, Achiyah ha'Shiloni cursed them, he compared them to - a cane that bends to and fro in the water.
The two disadvantages that the cedar has compared to the cane (besides the fact that it does not grow beside water) are that - it does not re-grow when cut, and that, because it has few roots, the south-wind will blow it down (see Rashash).
The additional advantage that the cane has over the cedar is that - one manufactures from it a quill with which to write Sifrei-Torah, Nevi'im and Kesuvim.