Question: We have only discussed the way a Jew acquires a wife. What is the way that a gentile does acquires a wife?

Answer (R. Abahu citing R. Elazar): The pasuk states (Bereishis 20, 3), "You will die because of the woman that you took, as she is married to a husband (be'ulas ba'al)'' - this teaches that she is acquired through relations.

Opinion #1: We can learn from the teaching of R. Elazar that at the time of relations, he must have intention to acquire her (since the pasuk used the phrase 'married to a husband' rather than 'married to a man').

Opinion #2: We can learn from the (following) statement of Shmuel that he does not need to have intention to acquire her

R. Yona citing Shmuel: If a prostitute was standing by the window and two had relations with her, the first one is not put to death and the second one is put to death (for adultery). Did the first intend to acquire her as a wife?!

The pasuk could have stated (Vayikra 18, 6), "A man (should not approach his close relative to reveal nakedness''). Why does the pasuk state "Any man...''? This includes a gentile who had forbidden relations with another gentile, that he is judged according to gentile law (i.e. he is killed by the sword and there is no need for witnesses nor warning).

But if a gentile had relations with a Jewess, he is judged according to Jewish law.

R. Elazar: From amongst all of the forbidden relationships, there is only one case for which a gentile would be liable - for relations with a betrothed Jewess, but not a betrothed gentile.

Explanation: If a gentile had relations with a betrothed Jewess, how could he be judged? If according to Jewish law, it requires two witnesses, 23 judges, warning and death by stoning.

And if he is judged according to gentile law, it requires only one witness, one judge, no warning and death by the sword.

R. Yudah bar Pazi adds: He is killed by strangulation and by admission of guilt (even without any witnesses).

What is the source of these two laws? (Bereishis 9, 6), "Whoever spills the blood of man, by man his blood shall be spilled'' - it can also be understood to read "...of man, inside man (ba'adam) - i.e. he must be killed with a death where the blood remains inside him, which is strangulation. Also, the word "by man'' teaches that he can be killed even by admission of guilt.

Furthermore, if he is judged by Jewish law and he converted after having relations with a betrothed Jewess, he is still liable.

But if he is judged by gentile law and converted after the crime, he is exempt.

Proof (R. Chanina): If a gentile cursed Hash-m and later converted, he is exempt, since his status has changed (from death by sword to stoning).