1)

(a)Abaye establishes the Machlokes between Rebbi Tarfon and Rebbi Akiva in our Mishnah (whether a Kohen feeds his betrothed after the waiting period entirely Terumah or half Terumah-half Chulin) by a bas Kohen who is betrothed to a Kohen. Why not by a bas Yisrael who is betrothed to a Kohen?

(b)What will be the Din ...

1. ... in the latter case?

2. ... in the case of a bas Kohen who is married to a Kohen?

(c)How is Abaye proven correct?

1)

(a)Abaye establishes the Machlokes between Rebbi Tarfon and Rebbi Akiva in our Mishnah (whether a Kohen feeds his betrothed after the waiting period entirely Terumah or half Terumah- half Chulin) by a bas Kohen who is betrothed to a Kohen, but not by a bas Yisrael to a Kohen - who is not experienced at guarding Terumah b'Taharah and of selling it when she is Tamei.

(b)Consequently ...

1. ... they will both agree that he may only feed her half Terumah-half Chulin (like a bas Kohen, who is used to it from her father's house), and the same applies to ...

2. ... a bas Kohen who is married to a Kohen - because (based on the Pasuk "Kol Kevudah bas Melech Penimah") it is not becoming for a married woman to leave the house to sell Terumah whenever she is Tamei.

(c)Abaye is proven correct - by a Beraisa, which supports both his rulings.

2)

(a)What proportion of Terumah to Chulin does Rebbi Yehudah ben Beseirah in the Beraisa prescribe for the Kohen to give in the above cases?

(b)Rebbi Yehudah prescribes half Terumah, half Chulin, like Rebbi Tarfon. In which point does he disagree with him?

(c)What does Raban Shimon ben Gamliel mean when he says that he gives her double the amount of Chulin?

(d)The Beraisa concludes that the difference between them is the bother involved. The difference between whom?

2)

(a)The proportion of Terumah to Chulin that Rebbi Yehudah ben Beseirah in the Beraisa prescribes for the Kohen to give in the above cases is - two thirds Terumah and one third Chulin.

(b)Rebbi Yehudah prescribes half Terumah, half Chulin, like Rebbi Tarfon. He disagrees with him however - inasmuch as whereas, according to the latter, he gives her half Terumah, even though the money she will receive from the sale of the half-Terumah will amount to less than the value of the half Chulin (because Terumah is sold at a cheaper price than Chulin); whereas he obligates the husband to give her sufficient Terumah to purchase with it the equivalent of the half Chulin.

(c)When Raban Shimon ben Gamliel says that he gives her double the amount of Chulin - he means that he gives her plenty of Terumah to make it easy for her to sell at a cheap price (and not at its market value).

(d)When the Beraisa concludes that the difference between them is the bother involved - it refers to Rebbi Yehudah (who leaves her with the trouble to sell the Terumah at its regular price) and Raban Shimon ben Gamliel (who does not, as we just explained) It seems to me though, that the statement also incorporates the opinion of Rebbi Yehudah ben Beseirah, since the difference between all of these opinions is the level of Tircha to which the woman is subjected.

3)

(a)What do we learn (with regard to feeding Terumah to one's betrothed) from the Pasuk ...

1. ... in Emor "Kinyan Kaspo"?

2. ... in Ki Setzei (concerning a Yevamah) "u'Lekachah Lo l'Ishah"?

(b)How do we know that a Yavam may feed the Yevamah Terumah, despite the fact that he acquired her with Bi'ah and not with money (in which case she is not literally "Kinyan Kaspo")?

(c)Having taught that if she waited the full twelfth-month period, barring one day, during her husband's lifetime, she is forbidden to eat Terumah, why did the Tana see fit to add that if she waited twelve months for the Yavam, she is forbidden, too? Is that not obvious?

3)

(a)We learn (with regard to feeding one's betrothed Terumah) from the Pasuk ...

1. ... in Emor "Kinyan Kaspo" - that a Yavam is not permitted to feed the Yevamah Terumah (because she is not "Kinyan Kaspo" but 'Kinyan d'Achiv').

2. ... in Ki Setzei (in connection with a Yevamah) "u'Lekachah Lo l'Ishah" - that, once a Yavam acquires his Yevamah with Bi'ah, she is his full-fledged wife.

(b)We know that a Yavam may feed the Yevamah Terumah, despite the fact that he acquired her with Bi'ah and not with money (in which case she is not literally "Kinyan Kaspo") - from the fact that (min ha'Torah) a man who acquires a woman through Bi'ah may feed her Terumah. This we learn from the Pasuk in Ki Setzei "v'Yatz'ah v'Hayesah", which compares all types of Kidushin, giving a woman who was acquired with Bi'ah the same Din as one who is acquired with money. And we simply extend this Din to a Yevamah.

(c)In spite of having taught that if the woman waited the full twelfth-month period, barring one day, during her husband's lifetime, she is forbidden to eat Terumah, the Tana nevertheless adds that if she waited twelve months for the Yavam, she is forbidden, too - following the principle 'Zu, v'Ein Tzarich Lomar Zu' (sometimes the Tana teaches a Chidush, adding a smaller Chidush, as if to say that the second Chidush goes without saying).

4)

(a)What reason does Ula (or Rav Shmuel bar Yehudah) give for the Mishnah Acharonah forbidding an Arusah to eat Terumah until she actually enters the Chupah?

(b)What problem does this create with Rav Shmuel bar Yehudah according to the Mishnah Rishonah?

(c)What is in fact, the basis of the Machlokes according to him?

4)

(a)The reason that Ula or Rav Shmuel bar Yehudah gives for the Mishnah Acharonah forbidding an Arusah to eat Terumah until she actually enters the Chupah is - because of Simpon.

(b)The problem this creates with Rav Shmuel bar Yehudah (earlier in the Sugya) is - that seeing as he ascribes this reason to the Mishnah Rishonah, it now appears that the Mishnah Rishonah and the Mishnah Acharonah agree.

(c)According to him, the basis of their Machlokes (despite the fact that both opinions are based on Simpon) - is whether the husband considers an external examination (one that is performed by others, as opposed to one that he performs himself) sufficiently reliable, to prevent him from retracting (Mishnah Rishonah) or not (Mishnah Acharonah).

58b----------------------------------------58b

5)

(a)What does the Tana of our Mishnah rule with regard to the work of a woman's hands, if her husband declares it Hekdesh?

(b)What is 'Mosar'? On what basis does a man acquire it?

(c)According to Rebbi Meir, if a man declares the Mosar, Hekdesh, it becomes Hekdesh. What does Rebbi Yochanan ha'Sandlar say?

5)

(a)The Tana of our Mishnah rules that if a husband declares Hekdesh the work of his wife's hands - she may continue to produce and eat (as will be explained in the Sugya).

(b)'Mosar' - is what a woman produces that is in excess of her basic needs, and which her husband receives against the Dinar that he pays her each week for extra Shabbos treats.

(c)According to Rebbi Meir, if a man declares the Mosar 'Hekdesh', it becomes Hekdesh. Rebbi Yochanan ha'Sandlar says - that it does not.

6)

(a)There are those who say that a man is permitted to say to his Eved Kena'ani 'Aseh Imi v'Eini Zancha'. What do we learn from the Pasuk in Re'eh (regarding an Eved Ivri) "Ki Tov Lo Imach"?

(b)What do we learn from there with regard to a wife?

(c)What do we prove from Rav Huna Amar Rav, who says that a woman may say to her husband 'Eini Nizones, v'Eini Osah' (with regard to the dual obligations of Mezonos and Ma'aseh Yadehah)?

6)

(a)According to one opinion, a man is permitted to say to his Eved Kena'ani 'Aseh Imi v'Eini Zancha'. From the Pasuk "Ki Tov Lo Imach" - we learn that one cannot say this to an Eved Ivri ...

(b)... 'Kal va'Chomer' to one's wife.

(c)We prove from Rav Huna Amar Rav, who says that a woman may say to her husband 'Eini Nizones, v'Eini Osah' - that Chazal's initial Takanah was Mezonos, following which they instituted that Ma'aseh Yadehah goes to the husband, in return for the Mezonos (and not vice-versa).

7)

(a)How will Rav Huna Amar Rav then amend the Beraisa 'Tiknu Mezonos Tachas Ma'aseh Yadehah'?

(b)How do we try to prove Rav Huna Amar Rav's statement from our Mishnah 'ha'Makdish Ma'aseh Yedei Ishto ... '?

(c)And on what grounds do we subsequently refute the proof?

(d)If that is so, what is the Chidush in our Mishnah, which permits a woman to feed herself from what she produces in spite of her husband's Neder forbidding it?

7)

(a)Rav Huna Amar Rav amends the Beraisa 'Tiknu Mezonos Tachas Ma'aseh Yadehah' - by switching it to 'Tiknu Ma'aseh Yadehah Tachas Mezonos'.

(b)We try to prove Rav Huna Amar Rav's statement from our Mishnah 'ha'Makdish Ma'aseh Yedei Ishto ... ' - which we assume speaks when he is feeding her. So, unless the initial Takanah was on behalf of the wife (who is entitled to decline should she so wish), how could she eat from her Ma'aseh Yadehah, in spite of her husband's Neder?

(c)We refute the proof however, by establishing our Mishnah when her husband was not in fact, feeding her (in which case it is obvious that she may retain her Ma'aseh Yadehah).

(d)If that is so, the Chidush in our Mishnah, which permits a woman to feed herself from what she produces in spite of her husband's Neder lies not in the Reisha - but in the Seifa, to teach us the Machlokes between Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Yochanan ha'Sandlar regarding Mosar.

8)

(a)Resh Lakish disagrees with Rav Huna. If, according to him, the reason of Rebbi Meir in our Mishnah is not because he holds that it is possible to declare something Hekdesh even before it has come into the world, then what is his reason?

(b)How can we interpret Rebbi Meir in this way, seeing as the husband mentioned, not his wife's hands, but the work that they produce?

(c)What does Rebbi Meir in a Beraisa say about someone who betroths a woman, on condition that the Kidushin should become effective after he or she converts, or after either of them is set free?

(d)Then how can Resh Lakish suggest that Rebbi Meir does not hold 'Makneh Davar she'Lo Ba l'Olam'?

8)

(a)Resh Lakish disagrees with Rav Huna. According to him, the reason of Rebbi Meir in our Mishnah is not because he holds that it is possible to declare Hekdesh something even before it has come into the world, but because, since he is entitled to force his wife to give him her Ma'aseh Yadehah (see Tosfos DH 'Mitoch'), he is also entitled to declare his wife's hands Hekdesh to Hash-m (with regard to what they produce).

(b)We interpret Rebbi Meir in this way, despite the fact that the husband mentioned, not his wife's hands, but the work that they produce - because this conforms with his opinion in Erchin, where he holds that a person does not make meaningless statements (and that consequently, should he make a declaration which is known to have no Halachic basis, we interpret his words in a way that they do indeed have Halachic validity).

(c)Rebbi Meir says in a Beraisa that if someone betroths a woman, on condition that the Kidushin should become effective after he or she converts or is set free - then the Kidushin is valid (in spite of the fact that at that point in time, he or she was still a Nochri or a slave.

(d)When Resh Lakish suggests that Rebbi Meir does not hold 'Makneh Davar she'Lo Ba l'Olam' - he means that there is no proof for this from our Mishnah, but on the basis of that Beraisa, he will agree that in fact, Rebbi Meir holds 'Makneh Davar she'Lo Ba l'Olam'.

9)

(a)According to Rav and Shmuel, the Mosar only becomes Hekdesh after her death. What does Rav Ada bar Ahavah say?

(b)According o Rav Papa, what would they both hold if her husband was ...

1. ... both feeding her and paying her a Ma'ah Kesef for Shabbos?

2. ... neither feeding her nor paying her a Ma'ah Kesef?

(c)Rav Papa therefore establishes the Machlokes in a case where he is feeding her but not giving her a Ma'ah Kesef. Rav and Shmuel's position is now clear. Why does Rav Ada bar Ahavah nevertheless declare the Mosar Hekdesh immediately?

(d)On what grounds does Rav Papa establish the Mishnah this way round, and not vice-versa (see Maharsha)?

9)

(a)According to Rav and Shmuel, the Mosar only becomes Hekdesh after her death - according to Rav Ada bar Ahavah, even during her lifetime.

(b)They would both agree, Rav Papa explains, that if her husband was ...

1. ... both feeding her and paying her a Ma'ah Kesef for Shabbos - that the Mosar would be Hekdesh even during her lifetime.

2. ... neither feeding her nor paying her a Ma'ah Kesef - that it would only become Hekdesh after her death.

(c)Rav Papa therefore establishes the Machlokes in a case where he is feeding her but not giving her a Ma'ah Kesef. Rav and Shmuel's position is now clear. Rav Ada bar Ahavah nevertheless declares the Mosar Hekdesh immediately - because in his opinion, Chazal did not institute Mezonos against Ma'aseh Yadehah and Ma'ah Kesef against Mosar (as we learned until now), but vice-versa, Mezonos against Mosar and Ma'ah Kesef against Ma'aseh Yadehah.

(d)Rav Papa establishes the Mishnah this way round, and not vice-versa (see Maharsha) - because earlier, Rav established our Mishnah when he is feeding her.

10)

(a)On what grounds do ...

1. ... Rav and Shmuel maintain 'Mezonos Tachas Ma'aseh Yadehah' rather than 'Tachas Mosar'?

2. ... Rav Ada bar Ahavah maintain 'Ma'ah Kesef Tachas Ma'aseh Yadehah' rather than 'Mezonos'?

10)

(a)And the reason that ...

1. ... Rav and Shmuel maintain 'Mezonos Tachas Ma'aseh Yadehah' (rather than 'Tachas Mosar') is - because both are common, whereas Mosar is not.

2. ... Rav Ada bar Ahavah maintains 'Ma'ah Kesef Tachas Ma'aseh Yadehah' (rather than Mezonos) - because both are fixed amounts (as we shall see in the following Mishnah), whereas Mezonos is not.

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