Is it strange that the gemara asks for a source and then brings a statement of an amora? And then looks for a way to define a terms and brings pesukim (chazal have some different word usage than pesukim in places anyway). Thank you in advance. (Re 7b iver la'asiayasan)
Moshe Rubin, Brooklyn, NY
Sholom Rav.
After extrapolating from the statements of various Amora'im that one needs to recite a B'rachah before performing a Mitzvah - though nobody actually said so explicitly, the Gemara wants to know the source for this and it cites Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak, who says so specifically. What is strange about that? As a matter of fact, Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak's reasoning is based on logic - to sanctify Oneself before performing the Mitzvah and to demonstrate that one is performing the Mitzvah for the sake of Hash-m, and not for any ulterior motive - Ritva. And as the Gemara says elsewhere 'S'vara is d'Oraysa'.
I'm not sure what else you are asking, but the Gemara is merely explaining the unusual term 'Over la'Asiyasan' used by R. Nachman bar Yitzchak. Admittedly, it is unusual for the Gemara to cite Pesukim in this manner, but, considering the unusual use of the phrase 'Over la'Asiyasan', it seems the normal thing to do.
Be'Virchas Kol Tuv.
Eliezer Chrysler.
Incidentally, both the Ritva and the Me'iri give reasons as to why R. Nachman uses the word 'Over' Rather than 'Kodem'.