Hello,
After we present the 3 possible questions King David asked, i.e. the approach proposed by Rava, Rav Huna, and the Rabanan, why do we need to bring verses?
1. Why are these verses chosen for this specific discussion?
2. Why do we ask how the verse of the Rabanan fits with the approach of Rav Huna (and vice versa)? Can't it be that the Rabanan have their approach to David's question and it's based on their understanding of a pasuk and Rav Huna has his approach based on a different pasuk?
3. If the verses are supposed to prove the validity of each unique approach to David's question then why isn't a verse brought for Rava (and the opinion of Tamon b'Esh)?
Thank you,
Jimmy Feterman
The Gemara is not quoting the the verse to prove any of the three opinions. It had a problem with understanding the the verses as to the question David posed, and it presents three possible ways of solving it. It queries the approaches of Rav Huna and the Rabanan, which at first glance, do not quite fit the explanation, but not that of Rava, which fits the Pesukim perfectly and which requires no further elaboration. I hope that this clarifies the issue.
Wishing you all the best,
Eliezer Chrysler