Why is the bracha, "Baruch atah Hash-m, gaal Yisroel" so unique? There should be a shin in front of "gaal" because that is proper dicduk and every other bracha like this has a "shin". "SheBachar Banu", "SheAsa Nisim" etc. The gemara in Pesachim only asks about why "gaal" is past tense here and "goel" is present tense in the Shemoneh Esrei but I have found no mention to this obvious issue. Please let me know if you know anything. If you can't find anything please respond anyway. Thanks for your time!
Sincerely,
David Greenberg, Ramat Beit Shemesh, Israel
The Ya'avetz asks this question in his Sefer Lu'ach Eres (Note 143 on page 56 of the new edition printed by Oraysoh in 5761). However, unfortunately he does not tell us the answer, as he only mentions it to prove a separate point.
I have heard that in a Sefer Zikaron by the name of Zevach Mishpachah (vol. 2) it is suggested that the word Ga'al in "Ga'al Yisrael" is a noun not a verb, in other words "redeemer of Israel". This would answer your question. However, this explanation seems to be contradicted by the Gemara in Pesachim which specifies past tense for Hallel and Birchas Krias Shema and future tense for Tefilah.
Perhaps we could answer that the Anshei Kenesses ha'Gedolah who instituted this Berachah wanted it to be similar in structure (what is called "Matbei'a") to the Berachah of Go'el Yisrael in Tefilah.
I hope this helps you.
Dov Freedman
I found an answer:
http://www.biu.ac.il/JH/Parasha/pesah/ger.html
http://www.biu.ac.il/jh/parasha/behaalot/per.html
David Greenberg, Ramat Beit Shemesh, Israel