the gemara asks does a inheriter have an obligation of "baal t'achair" and it concludes that i does not. my question is, does this mean that he has no time limit at all to bring this offereing, or only that he starts his own 3 festivals instead of continuing from his fathers cycle?
david lowy,
The Gemara learns this Halachah from the word "me'Imach" (in Devarim 23:22), which implies that "Lo Se'acher", mentioned earlier in the Pasuk, is confined to the person who declared the Neder, but not to his heirs (despite the fact that they are obligated to bring the Korban). The Torah is clearly coming to preclude the heirs from the La'av altogether, not just to shift the time for the transgression. And this is borne out by the Rambam (Ma'aseh ha'Korbanos, 14:14), who states categorically that 'Both a man and a woman are subject to bal Te'acher, but an heir is not'.
be'Virchas Kol Tuv.
Eliezer Chrysler