hebrew
1)

Why does the Torah refer to six plus forty-two Arei Miklat? Why does it not simply refer to forty-eight Arei Miklat?

1.

Torah Temimah (citing Makos, 10a & 13a): Because there are two distinctions between the two sets of Arei Miklat: 1. Whereas the six initial towns protect a murderer against the go'el ha'Dam, irrespective of whether he is aware that he is in an Ir Miklat or not, the forty-two additional ones will only protect him if he knows that he is in an Ir Miklat. 2. Whereas a murderer in one of the six initial Arei Miklat is exempt from paying the Levi'im rental for his apartment, in one of the forty-two, he is obligated to pay.

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