hebrew
1)

Having said "Kodesh la'Hashem", why does the Pasuk then add "ki'Sedei ha'Cherem..."?

1.

Rashi: To teach us that the field does not go to Bedek ha'Bayis, 1 but to the Kohanim of the Mishmar that is serving in the Beis-Hamikdash when the Yovel begins. 2


1

See Sifsei Chachamim.

2

Like fields of Cherem, about which the Torah writes in Bamidbar (18:14) "Kol Cherem b'Yisrael l'cha Yih'yeh".

2)

Rashi writes that "ki'Sedei ha'Cherem" teaches that the field does not go to Bedek ha'Bayis, rather,to the Kohanim. "La'Kohen Tihyeh Achuzaso" should suffice!

3)

Toras Kohanim infers from "ha'Sadeh b'Tzeiso" that 'Sadeh' is masculine. What is the relevance of this?

1.

Da'as Zekenim, Moshav Zekenim: It says in Bava Kama (109b) that if a Kohen redeemed it, he may not say 'I acquire what did not belong to me (if one does not redeem his field before Yovel, it is divided among the Kohanim), all the more so, I keep what he redeemed! "Ki'Sedei ha'Cherem Tihyeh Achuzaso" refutes this. 1 If Sadeh were feminine, we would say that the field is his inheritance! Rather, it is masculine; the field is Kodesh to Hashem, just like a Cherem field is to a Kohen.


1

Moshav Zekenim: An old text says "v'Hayah ha'Sadeh" teaches that it is of the Gizbar, like it was before he sold it. If not, I would say that it is the Kohen's and he keeps it.

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