hebrew
1)

What did Pharaoh mean when he said "Havah Nischakmah Lo!"?

1.

Rashi #1, Rashbam, Seforno, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: He was referring to outsmarting Yisrael.

2.

Rashi #2: He meant that they should outsmart the Savior of Yisrael (Hashem, Kevayachol), by drowning their newborn babies, since He had sworn that He would never again bring a flood upon the world. 1

3.

Ramban: He meant that they should search for ways and means to kill them in a way that they would not realize what was happening. 2


1

What he failed to realize was that if Hashem had sworn that He would not bring upon the whole world, that did not mean that He would not do so upon a single nation (Rashi Yashan). Hadar Zekenim - alternatively, He would not bring a flood upon them, but He could bring them into the water.

2

That is why he first imposed a tax upon them, then ordered his people to kill every Jewish baby boy that they found (in an individual capacity). Once this was permitted, they took matters further and entered into the Jewish homes to look for the babies. This seems to have occurred at most during the three years between the birth of Aharon and the birth of Moshe (See Ramban).

2)

Why did Pharaoh not simply order his people to slay Yisrael by the sword?

1.

Ramban #1: It would have been an act of treachery to wipe out a nation who had arrived in his land at the invitation of his predecessor. Moreover, his people 1 would never have given their consent to permit such a wicked act.

2.

Ramban #2: Because Yisrael had become a large and powerful nation, and they would have resisted, thus resulting in a war.


1

With whom he consulted (Ramban).

3)

What exactly, was Pharaoh afraid of?

1.

Rashi #1, Rashbam, and Targum Onkelos: He was concerned that, after helping their enemies 1 defeat them, Yisrael (who were potential slaves) would leave the country against their (the Egyptian's) will.

2.

Rashi #2: He was afraid that they (Yisrael) would join their enemies and help drive them out of the land, 2 and then take possession of it 3 .

3.

Ramban He was afraid that they would join forces with our enemy for the spoil that they would capture. 4

4.

Targum Yonasan: He was afraid that (a) They would help their enemies to annihilate them, and (b) That they would then leave Egypt. 5

5.

Seforno: He was afraid that they (Yisrael) would join their enemies. 6


1

The kings of Cana'an, who will attack them on account of the vast stores of money that Yosef had accumulated from the sale of grain (Ba'al ha'Turim).

2

And Pharaoh said "and they will go out of the land", in the way that people 'hang their curse' on to somebody else (Rashi).

3

However, the Lashon "ve'Alah min ha'Aretz" does not go well (Ramban [Refer to 1:10:4:2)).

4

Also refer to 1:10:4:3.

5

It is not however, clear, why they were then worried if they left Egypt (See Peirush Na'ar Yonasan).

6

Due to the fact that they were so totally different than them (because of the B'ris Milah and the language and culture), to the point that they would not eat together with them (Seforno).

4)

What did Pharaoh mean when he added "ve'Alah min ha'Aretz"?

1.

Rashi, Rashbam, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: Refer to 1:10:3:1,2,3.

2.

Ramban #1 (according to the basic second explanation of Rashi): "And they will attack us from the land in which they live (Goshen).

3.

Ramban #2: Refer to 1:10:3:3. And they would then flee the country and return to Eretz Cana'an with all their (the Egyptians' possessions).

4.

Seforno: With reference to the beginning of the Pasuk, this as part of Pharaoh's plan - that they find ways and means of forcing Yisrael to leave Egypt, to prevent them from joining forces with their enemies.

5.

Hadar Zekenim: When Yisrael reach the lowest level (earth), immediately they rise from there (the ground).

5)

Rashi writes that the Vov equates the laws of a Seh and those of an ox. What do we learn from this?

1.

Moshav Zekenim: Just like Olas Seh is slaughtered in the north, also an ox. 1

2.

Moshav Zekenim: Zevachim 32b learns from "v'Shachat Es Ben ha'Bakar Lifnei Hashem" that the ox must be in front of Hashem (in the Azarah), but the Shochet need not be. We learn that the same applies to a Seh.


1

Moshav Zekenim: This is like the opinion that due to Vov Mosif, we can learn the previous Parshah from the latter. However, one opinion (Zevachim 48a) says that we learn only the latter from the previous!

6)

Since it says "Min ha'Tzon", why do we need "Min ha'Kevasim u''Min ha'Izim"?

1.

Moshav Zekenim: Tzon alludes to Yisrael - "v'ATen Tzoni Tzon Mar'isi" (Yechezkel 34:17). Kevasim alludes to Tzadikim, who have no Yetzer ha'Ra, Izim alludes to brazen people All of them are equal after they do full Teshuvah - "Shalom Shalom la'Rachok vela'Karov" (Yeshayah 57:19). Shalom is given first to the Rasha, who was far, for absolute Tzadikim cannot stand where Baalei Teshuvah stand.

7)

Why did the Torah not mention flaying a Seh Olah?

1.

Riva (as cited in Tosfos ha'Shalem 2): : The Torah taught so about an ox. The same applies to all Olos. It needed to write dissection, for its limbs are smaller than an ox', and I would have that that it is not needed.

8)

רש"י: נתחכמה לו- לעם: למה רש"י הוסיף זאת?

1.

גור אריה: רש"י התקשה ש"לו" זה לשון יחיד? ותירץ שעל העם אפשר לדבר בלשון יחיד.

9)

רש"י: נתחכמה מה לעשות לו: למה רש"י הוסיף זאת?

1.

גור אריה: רש"י התקשה שמספיק היה לכתוב 'נתחכם פן ירבה' ולמה נוספה מילת "לו"? לכן פירש- נתחכם מה לעשות לו.

10)

רש"י: נתחכם למושיען של ישראל: לעיל גם כתוב בלשון יחיד- "עצום ורב" ושם לא דרשו דבר?

1.

גור אריה: המצרים באו להזכיר כאן את הריבוי של ישראל, וא"כ קשה למה קראו לעצמם בלשון רבים- "על שונאינו" ואילו ישראל מוזכרים בלשון יחיד? לכן דרשו 'למושיען'. 1

2.

גור אריה: לשון יחיד יכול להתפרש על הרבים, אבל מילת "עליו" משמעה דוקא יחיד.


1

עיין עוד בגור אריה למה בפסוק הבא לא פירש רש"י כפי המדרש שהפסוק נדרש בלשון יחיד.

11)

רש"י: נתחכם למושיען של ישראל: כיצד דרשו זאת, והרי פשט הפסוק שנתחכם לישראל עצמם?

1.

גור אריה: ה' הוא המאחד את ישראל לעם אחד, ולכן 'נתחכמה לאחדותם של ישראל על ידי שנתחכם למושיעם'.

12)

רש"י: נשבע שלא יביא מבול לעולם: למה ה' מעניש את הרשעים (כגון בדור אנוש ובמבול) דוקא במים?

1.

מהר"ל (גבורות ה' פי"ד עמ' ע ד"ה ובבראשית): המים הם ניגרים וחסרי צורה ולפיכך לא נאמר בהם בריאה ויצירה, לכן אמנם גדול שבח ה' כאשר הוא בא על ידי האדם שיש לו מעלת הצורה- אבל כשמחמת מעלתו חוטא האדם, עדיף ששבח ה' יבא מהמים חסרי הצורה ולכן העביר ה' את הרשעים במים.

13)

רש"י: נשבע שלא יביא מבול לעולם: מה התועלת בשבועה זו והרי ה' יכול להענישם בעונשים אחרים?

1.

מהר"ל (גבורות ה' פי"ד עמ' ע ד"ה ובבראשית): העברת העולם צריכה להיות דוקא על ידי המים שהם חסרי צורה [ולכן אין צד להעביר את העולם על ידי אש]. 1


1

עי' מה שהובא בשאלה הקודמת מהמהר"ל למה התייחדו המים לעניין זה.

14)

רש"י: נשבע שלא יביא מבול לעולם: א"כ, כיצד אכן נענשו?

1.

מהר"ל (גבורות ה' פי"ד עמ' ע' ד"ה ובבראשית): השבועה הייתה לכלל, לא לפרט.

2.

מהר"ל (גבורות ה' פי"ד עמ' ע' ד"ה ובבראשית): השבועה הייתה שלא להגביר את המים על היצורים, ואילו את המצרים הוא זרק לתוך המים וזה כמו כל פורענות.

15)

רש"י: על כרחנו: למה רש"י הוסיף זאת?

1.

גור אריה: קשה שעליהם לשמוח אם אויביהם יעלו מהארץ? אלא 'על כורחינו'.

16)

רש"י: ותולה קללתו באחרים: מנין דרשו זאת?

1.

גור אריה: קשה שהיה להם לחשוש יותר שישראל ילחמו בהם ויהרגו אותם? אלא הכוונה שהם יבריחו את המצרים מהארץ, ואם לא יברחו- יהרגום.

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