hebrew
1)

Why does the Pasuk repeat the command to have children? Noach was already commanded to do so above (Bereishis 9:1).

1.

Rashi #1 and Ramban: The earlier Pasuk was a Berachah, 1 whereas this Pasuk is a command. Also refer to 9:7:1.1.

2.

Rashi #2: To teach us 2 that desisting from having children is compared to murder.

3.

Ramban #1: HaSh-m instructed Bnei Noach to try their utmost to have as many children as possible. 3

4.

Ramban #2: They should fill the world, and not remain in one place (as the generation of the Tower planned to do). 4

5.

Gur Aryeh: Noach had been forbidden to procreate in the Ark; therefore, two verses regarding this Mitzvah were necessary after he emerged: first to permit it (9:1), and then to make it obligatory (this verse).


1

See Sifsei Chachamim.

2

We derive this from the previous verses, which discuss murder. (PF)

3

This is like He had commanded Adam and Chavah (Refer to 1:28:3:1).

4

This too is like He commanded Adam and Chavah (Refer to 1:28:3:2).

2)

Rashi writes: "'... Be fruitful and multiply' - this verse is a command." Wasn't mankind already commanded to "be fruitful and multiply" in the time of Adam (1:28)?

1.

Ramban, Mizrachi #1: The verse stated to Adam was a blessing (as was verse 9:1 stated to Noach 1 ), not as a command; only this verse constitutes a command.

2.

Mizrachi #2: Noach was afraid to resume procreation until HaSh-m reassured him that there would not be another Flood, as Rashi writes on the following verse (9:8). Therefore, HaSh-m saw fit to reiterate this command together with the covenant in the next verse.

3.

Gur Aryeh: Once the Torah was given to Bnei Yisrael, any Mitzvah stated only by Adam and not repeated, would be incumbent only on Bnei Yisrael (Sanhedrin 59a). Therefore, the Torah repeats this Mitzvah here, to make it obligatory on Bnei Noach. 2


1

Refer to 9:7:1:1.

2

See however Sanhedrin 59b, and Tosfos and Maharsha loc.cit.

3)

Rashi writes: "... in a homiletic sense, the verse compares one who does not engage in procreation, to one who sheds blood." Ramban asks

4)

Why does the Pasuk add the word "v'Atem" - "and you"?

1.

Ramban #1: Because earlier (Bereishis 8:17), HaSh-m commanded the animals to increase in the land; here He commands Noach and his family to do likewise.

5)

רש"י: וכאן לציווי: למה הוצרך לצוות את נח על פריה ורביה, והרי אדם הראשון כבר נצטווה בכך?

1.

רא"ם: רש"י ממשיך בפסוק הבא שנח חשש לעסוק בפו"ר שמא יבא מבול נוסף עד שהבטיחו הקב"ה על כך, ולכן נצרך כאן לצוותו.

2.

גור אריה: בתיבה נאסר בתשמיש וכשיצא התיר לו, ועכשיו חזר וציווהו.

3.

גור אריה: מהפסוקים שנאמרו לאדם הראשון לא למדנו ציווי לבני נח אלא לישראל, עיי"ש.

6)

רש"י: ולפי מדרשו להקיש מי שאינו עוסק בפריה ורביה לשופך דמים: רמב"ן משמע שלפי המדרש אין כאן ציווי, וקשה שבודאי גוף המקרא בא לציווי ורק מהסמיכות הקישו לשופך דמים? גור אריה: עוד קשה שאם לפי המדרש מי שאינו עוסק בפו"ר כשופך דם, בודאי שיש כאן ציווי לעסוק בפו"ר?

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