hebrew
1)

What did Avraham mean when he told Sarah that "her maidservant was in her hands?"

1.

Seforno: What he meant was that he had not set her free. 1


1

See Seforno to Bereishis 30:6.

2)

Why did Sarah afflict Hagar (by increasing her workload)? Was it an act of revenge?

1.

Seforno: It was to remind her that she was her slave, and that she should treat her with due respect.

2.

Ramban: She acted incorrectly; and so did Avraham by allowing it. 1

3.

Riva: She had verbally afflicted Sarah. Semag says that the victim of affliction may afflict his oppressor, for the latter is not "Amisecha."

4.

Chidushei Agados of Rav Y.S. Elyashiv: Hagar had stopped acting like a Talmid of Sarah, and considered herself to be a teacher. The affliction was to act like a Talmid, e.g. carry Sarah's clothes to the bathhouse.


1

This is why Hashem accepted Hagar's prayers and gave her a son who would be a "Pere Adam," and who would torment the children of Avraham in all sorts of ways. Refer to 21:17:2:1.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

3)

Rashi writes: "Sarah afflicted her (va'Te'a'neha) - she gave her difficult work." What is Rashi explaining?

1.

Gur Aryeh: We should not think that Sarah inflicted physical torture on her, for if so the verse should have used a different verb, "va'Teyaser."

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:
Month: Day: Year:
Month: Day: Year:

KIH Logo
D.A.F. Home Page
Sponsorships & DonationsReaders' FeedbackMailing ListsTalmud ArchivesAsk the KollelDafyomi WeblinksDafyomi CalendarOther Yomi calendars