What are the implications of the phrase, "va'Yehi Achar ha'Devarim ha'Eleh"?
Oznayim la'Torah, Malbim: As long as Yosef was a slave, she would not have dreamt of accosting Yosef in this manner. 1 And it was only after he was elevated to the status of a servant, placed in charge of Potifar's household and then appointed manager over his estate, when the title 'Eved' was long forgotten, 2 that she accosted him.
Ha'amek Davar: After Yosef had great success and did not need to toil, therefore he was beautiful, and this occurred. 3
Oznayim la'Torah: History teaches us that the Roman noble-women would unashamedly bathe in front of their slaves because they considered them animals, and it would have therefore been utterly debasing to have had relations with him. (Potifar bought Yosef with intent to have relations with him, presumably, right away! Perhaps he intended to free him immediately, but beforehand he became castrated (refer to 39:1:2:2), therefore he did not. - PF)
Which is why she referred to him as "Ish Ivri" (39:14).
Yosef was beautiful from the beginning. This is why Potifar bought him! Perhaps his beauty faded when he began working hard, and returned when he was appointed over Potifar's house. (PF)
Why did the wife of Potifar say to Yosef "Shichvah Imi," in the feminine?
Kesef Mezukak: If you do not want to be intimate with me like a male, just lie with me like a female (there are females who rub their Ervah on each other). 1
Kometz Minchah: She used the feminine to arouse his thoughts.
Penei Yosef: Sometimes there is a 'Hei' when speaking to a male - "Esfah Li" (Bamidbar 11:16) [Redah Elai" - Bereishis 45:9]. To a female, one says 'Shichvi' (Rus 3:13) [and above, Bereishis 19:34]. The 'Hei' hints that due to his refusal, a 'Hei' was added to his name ("Eidus bi'Yehosef Samo" (Tehilim 81:6)).
Ha'amek Davar (to Vayikra 15:18): [She used an expression of lying, for] 'Bi'ah' and 'Be'ilah' apply only to a husband coming to his wife. [This is difficult. It says Bi'ah regarding "Eshes Re'ehu" (Mishlei 6:29), and others having Bi'ah with the concubines of Sha'ul and David (Shmuel II 3:7, Shmuel II 16:21); and Yehudah said so to Tamar, thinking that she is a Zonah (however, some say that he was Mekadesh her - refer to 38:16:1:3 and 38:16:1:5). It says "u'Va'al Bas El Nechar" (Mal'achi 2:11)! - PF]
Why does it say "El Yosef"? It should say 'Al Yosef'!
Ha'amek Davar: She adorned herself and lifted her eyes near Yosef to arouse him to Zenus. Later, she explicitly said so to him.
