Why did the Torah interrupt the Parshah of Yosef with that of Yehudah?


Refer to 38:1:1:1-7.


Why does the Pasuk refer to Potifar as 'Seris Pharaoh'?


Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan #1: It means that he was an important officer of Pharaoh. 1


Targum Yonasan #2: The word 'Saris' can also mean a eunuch, which is what Potifar became, when after he bought Yosef for immoral purposes, Hashem caused his sexual organs to dry up and he became impotent. 2


See 40:1 and the Ramban there.


Refer to 41:45:4:1.


What exactly, was Potifar's position?


Refer to 37:36:3:1-4.


The Pasuk wrote earlier (Bereishis 37:36) that the Medanim sold Yosef to Potifar. Why does it write here that it was the Yishma'elim who sold him?


Ramban and Seforno: Refer to 37:28:1:2.


R. Chaim Paltiel: When the Yishma'elim offered to sell the good-looking Yosef to Potifar, he suspected them of having stolen him, 1 and that the owners would eventually come and re-claim him - until the Medanim arrived and guaranteed that Yosef was not stolen and that the sale was genuine.


Moshav Zekenim (37:25): The Medanim do not normally sell people. When they wanted to sell Yosef, the Egyptians suspected that they stole him, until the Yishma'elim testified (that the Medanim bought him). 2


Rashbam: Refer to 37:36:1:2.


Refer to 37:28:1:5,6,8,9.


Riva (Bereishis 37:36): Potifar suspected them, for it is uncommon for black people to sell white people. Rosh (Bereishis 37:28) - it is common for white people to sell blacks, but not vice-versa. Medanim and Midyanim are the same; they were middlemen in the sale, and the Yishma'elim hired them to come to Egypt to testify about it. R. Tam - Medanim are a different nation. They did not have money to pay for him, so they left him in the Yishma'elim's hand until they sold him.


Refer to 39:1:4:2*.


Having said "v'Yosef Hurad Mitzraynah", Why does the Torah see fit to repeat "asher Horiduhu Shamah"?


Oznayim la'Torah: Following the principle 'Ein Mi'ut Achar Mi'ut Ela Lerabos' (two preclusions come to include), we can explain that this was not a Yeridah, but an Aliyah, since ultimately, it led to Yosef's rise to greatness.


Why does the Torah use the passive form 'Hurad" (Yosef was taken down)?


Da'as Zekenim, Hadar Zekenim: This shows that it was due to Hashem's decree [that Bnei Yisrael descend to Egypt].


Why did the Torah need to repeat the fact that Potifar bought Yosef from the Yishma'elim?


Ha'Emek Davar: The custom was, if a slave owner could not wait for a buyer, the Dimusiya of the country bought him and later sold him. Potifar was appointed over this, so he could not buy him himself, just like a Gabai Tzedakah may not buy [food or other matters of] Tzedakah, due to suspicion [that they pay less than its true value]. Potifar covered up that the Dimusiya already bought Yosef, and arranged that the Yishma'elim now sell him, so he himself could buy him. It is not because Potifar was a Kena'ani that he did so; he was Ish Mitzri. (Through Hashgachah, he strove to buy Yosef.)

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