1)

?ve?Im Hafer Yafer lah Acharei Sham?o?. What are the connotations of ?Acharei Sham?o??

1.

Rashi: It means after he heard and endorsed the Neder. 1


1

See Torah Temimah citing the Sifri and note 85.

2)

What case is the Pasuk referring to?

1.

Rashi, Ramban #1 and Rashbam: It refers to a case where her husband (or father) heard her Neder and endorsed it, 1 and then, even on the same day, 2 he annulled it.

2.

Ramban #2 and Seforno: It refers to where, after remaining silent on the day that his wife made the Neder, he annulled it the following day in front of her. 3


1

Rashbam: She did not know about the Kiyum. She heard only the Hafarah, and thinks that it is annulled.

2

See Sifsei Chachamim.

3

Ramban: And told her that he only heard about it on that day. See Ramban.

3)

What are the connotations of "Acharei Sham'o"?

1.

Sifri: It means after he heard it and endorsed it 1 - because the Torah has already discussed where he was silent after he heard it when it wrote "ki Hechrish lah be'Yom Sham'o" in the prevous Pasuk. 2


1

See Torah Temimah, note 85.

2

Refer to 30:12:

4)

What are the implications of "ve'Nasa es Avonah"?

1.

Rashi, Ramban #1 and R. Bachye #1 (on Pasuk 15): It implies that he stands in her place to be punished, 1 because he caused her to sin 2 (And if someone who causes his friend to sin is subbject to punishment, jow much more is someone who causes his friend to do a Mitzvah subjet to reward - Sifri).

2.

Ramban #2 and R. Bachye #1 (on Pasuk 15): It implies that she is absolved from all guilt, since she was unaware of the fact that he knew about her Neder on the previous day. 3


1

Seforno: Just like anybody who makes his friend sin or who tricks him into sinning by issuing him a false ruling permitting what is forbidden.

2

Rashi: We learn from here that someone who causes someone else to sin in this way, is punished instead of him. Sifri: And how much more so someone who causes his friend to perform a Mitzvah.

3

Ramban and R. Bachye: But in the event that she did know, she is guilty and he is absolved from her sin, and is only taken to task for not stopping her from sinning.

5)

Why does the Torah present this case specifically by a husband and not by a father?

1.

Ramban: As a matter of fact, the same Din will apply to a father, and the reason that the Torah presents the case by a husband is because, whereas it sometimes happens that a husband hates his wife and causes her to sin, a father generally loves his daughter and will not do that to her.

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