Why does the Torah use the expression "Bein Ish le'Ishto"?
Ramban (citing Nedarim, 79b): To teach us that, in addition to Nedarim that cause his wife suffering, 1 a husband 2 may only annul Nedarim that adversly affect their marital relationship. 3
Ramban: The Sifri and Yerushalmi say that the same applies to a father annulling his daughter's vows. Refer to 30:17:151:1.
Ramban: Such as a Neder not to wear make-up or to withhold intimacy from him.
What are the ramifications of the comparison between "Ish le'Ishto" and "Av le'Bito"?
Sifri: It compares one to the other regarding all the details that the Pesukim above to teach us that whatever is written by one applies to the other. 1
Nedarim, 68a: It teaches us that the father of a Na'arah Me'urasah can annul the Nedarim of his daughter together with the Arus. 2
Sifri and Yerushalmi Nedarim, 11:1: It teaches us that a father, like a husband, can only annul Nedarim that are either Inuy Nefesh or Beino le'Veinah. 3
See Torah Temimah, note 89.
See Torah Temimah, note 90. Me'iri (Nedarim 79a): This limitation for a father applies only to Nedarim which the father annuls together with the Arus), but he can annul all the Nedarim of a Penuyah, like the Rambam says (Since a father can annul an Arusah's vows only with the Arus, since the Arus can annul only Inuy Nefesh or matters between him and her, what is the relevance of whether the father can annul other vows? We can say that it affects when the Arus dies and the father receives full authority, or if annulling his share exempts from Malkos - PF).
What are the implications of "bi'Ne'urehah Beis Avihah"?
Rashi (on Pasuk 9): Refer to 30:9:1:1.
Targum Yonasan: It teaches us that even when she is a Na'arah, her father can annul her Nedarim, as long as she is under his jurisdiction, but not once she is married. 1
Kesuvos, 46b: It implies that a father has rights over his daughter as regards the money of her Kidushin, her findings and whatever she produces with her hands, as the Torah writes "bi'Ne'ureha Beis Aviha"
The Sifri and Yerushalmi learn from "Bein Ish le'Ishto Bein Av le'Bito" that, just like a husband annuls only Nedarim of Inuy Nefesh, or Beino le'Veinah (that affect intimacy), also a father. How is 'Beino le'Veinah' applicable to a father?
Refer to 30:17:1:1, notes 2 & 3.
Keser ha'Melech (Hilchos Nedarim 12:1): 'Beino le'Veinah' includes where she she forbids her husband father to benefit from her work.
