What are the implications of "Hashem Elokim"?
Rashi (citing the Sifri): It implies 'Merciful in judgment'. 1
Ramban #1 (citing Midrash Yelamdeinu): It implies 'Master (Adon-ai - spelled 'Alef Daled Nun Yud') who possesses the Midah of Rachamim (Elokim - spelled 'Yud Kei Vav Kei')'. In other words, if I am worthy, give it me according to the Din; if not, then give it to me with the Midas ha'Rachamim. 2
Ramban #2 (citing the same Sifri as Rashi): The first Name is that of Din and the second Name, of Rachamim. 3
According to the vowels. See Ramban's objection to this explanation, based on the spelling of the second Name.
Ramban: Which is also what Avraham meant when, in Lech-L'cha, Bereishis, 15:2, he used the same expression.
In the reverse order of Rashi - in keeping with the spelling. Ramban: Because the Name Havayah is Rachamim, whereas all other Names of Hashem are Din. See Ramban for sources.
What gave Moshe the idea to Daven to enter Eretz Yisrael, even though the decree had been issued forbidding him to do so?
Rashi: Moshe is saying here that he learned it from the opening that Hashem had made for him when, following the sin of the Golden Calf, He said to him "ve'Atah Hanichah Li", implying that it was up to Moshe to Daven and save Yisrael. 1
Rashi's proof is not clear however, since there Hashem had not yet decreed the punishment?
What did Moshe mean when he said "Atah Hachilosa Lehar'os es Avd'cha"?
Rashi #1: He meant that he took his cue to Daven from the opening that Hashem made for him. 1
Rashi #2: He was asking Hashem that, having begun to show Moshe the battles against Sichon and Og, would He not also show him the battles against the thirty-one kings (of Cana'an)?
Ramban: He was referring to his first prophesy (at the Burning Bush), where Hashem revealed to him His Divine Glory 2 and where He showed him that there is 'none like Him in Heaven and on earth'.
Why did Moshe begin with "Atah Hachilosa ... " before stating his request?
B'rachos, 32a: Because one is obligated to open one's Tefilah with the praises of Hashem before presenting one's personal requests. 1
Torah Temimah: Which explains why, when Chazal instituted the wording of the Amidah, they began (the first three B'rachos) with praises of Hashem. See also Oznayim la'Torah, DH 'es Godl'cha'.
What are the implications of "Godl'cha"?
Rashi: It implies Hashem's Midah of goodness (Chesed). 1
Seforno: 'To change the laws of nature (with reference to the numerous miracles that Hashem performed in Egygpt, by the Yam-Suf and in the desert) that nobody but Hashem is able to do.
Rashi: As in Va'eschanan, Bamidbar 14:17.
Which hand is "Yadcha" referring to?
Rashi: It is referring to the right hand 1 which is stretched out to everybody.
Refer to 3:24"6"1..
Why did Moshe describe Hashem's Hand as "Yad ha'Chazakah"?
Rashi: What Moshe means is that Hashem quashes the powerful Midas ha'Din with Rachamim.
Why did Moshe add "asher Mi Keil ba'Shamayim u'va'Aretz"?
Rashi: Unlike human kings, who have advisors and prosecutors 1 who insist that they carry out Din to the letter of the law, Hashem reigns Supreme, and if He wants to perform Chesed with the guilty, there is no-one to stop Him.
Rosh: There is no other power (or G-d - Hadar Zekenim) in Heaven or on earth that can emulate Your deeds and mighty acts.
Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: 'Whose Shechinah dwells in the Heaven above, and who rules over the earth'.
See also Sifsei Chachamim.
Why did Moshe not mention the fact that, having defeated Sichon and Og, he was obviously the best person to take Yisrael into Eretz Cana'an and fight the Cana'anim?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because in his deep humility, he ascribed everything to Hashem who is the 'Ish Milchamah', and who will send whoever He wishes to fight on his (Moshe's) place with the same results.
