What are the connotations of the words "Veha'avarta Shofar Teru'ah"?
Rashi: It means 'You shall announce 1 by means of the Shofar'.
Rosh Hashanah, 26a: "Shofar Teru'ah" implies one Shofar and not two or three Shofros - one inside the other or a Shofar that is made from a number of pieces stuck together - Torah Temimah. 2
Rosh Hashanah, 27b: It implies that one should blow into the narrow end ? the way it grows on the ram's head, and that if one turns it round and blows into the thick end one is not Yotzei. 3
Rosh Hashanah, 33b: It teaches us that one blows a Teki'ah before the Teru'ah, and "Ta'aviru Shofar", that one blows a Teki'ah after the Teru'ah. 4
Rashi: As in Pikudei Sh'mos, 36:6. The Gemara in Rosh Hashanah, 34a actually learns from there via a Gezeirah Shavah that it means 'by means of a sound.
See Torah Temimah, note 43, citing the Ran.
See Torah Temimah, note 61.
And since the Torah writes "Teru'ah" three times ? once here, once in Emor, 23:24 and once in Pinchas, Bamidbar, 29:1, the Gemara there learns that one blows Teki'ah, Teru'ah, Teki'ach three times on Rosh Hashanah. And the fact that we add them together in turn, we learn from a Gezeirah Shavah "Shevi'i" "Shevi'i" ? Rosh Hashanah, 34b. See also Torah Temimah, note 48. Refer also to 25:9:2.1:1.
What are the implications of (the otherwise superfluous) words "be'Yom ha'Kipurim"?
Sifra: To teach us "be'Yom", 'Afilu be'Shabbos'; "be'Yom ha'Kipurim", 'Afilu be'Shabbos'.
Why does the Torah repeat "Ta'aviru Shofar"?
Refer to 25:9:1:3.
Rosh Hashanah, 30a: To teach us that every individual is also obligated to blow the Shofar on Yom Kipur of Yovel. 1
In adition to the Mitzvah incumbent upon Beis-Din. See Torah Temimah, mnote 48. See also Oznayim la'Torah DH 'Veha'avarta Shofar ... ' #2.
Why do we blow the Shofar at the beginning of the Yovel?
Seforno: It is an expression of joy at the releasing of all the Avadim Ivrim, and at the return of all fields (and houses not in walled cities) to their original owners.
Targum Yonasan: It is a reminder to release all Avadim Ivrim and to return all the fields to their original owners. 1
See Peirush Yonasan. See also Oznayim la'Torah. DH 'Ve'ha'avarts Shofar ... ' #1.
Why does the Torah write "ba'Chodesh ha'Shevi'i be'Osar la'Chodesh", and not simply 'be'Asor la'Chodesh ha'Shevi'i'?
Rosh Hashanah, 34b: To teach us that all the Teki'os of the seventh month are the same ? to incorporate Rosh Hashanah. 1
Seeing as the Torah writes "be'Yom ha'Kipurim", why does it need to add "be'Asor la'Chodesh"?
Rashi: To teach us that blowing the Shofar on the tenth of the month overrides Shabbos throughout the land, but not blowing the Shofar on the first (on Rosh Hashanah), which overrides Shabbos only in Beis-Din. 1
Ramban: Rashi is teaching us that blowing the Shofar on Yom Kipur of Yovel is incumbent, not only upon Beis-Din (like counting the years of the Yovel), but also upon every individual. His explanation is Halachically correct, but he did not differentiate between what is min ha'Torah and what is merely an Asmachta mi'de'Rabanan (since blowing the Shofar is not a Melachah and the Isur of blowing on Shabbos is only mi'de'Rabbanan). Refer also to 25:9:4:1.
Having stated "be'Asor la'Chodesh", why does the Torah need to add "be'Yom ha'Kipurim"?
Sifra: To Darshen "baYom", 've'Lo ba'Laylah' - "be'Yom ha'Kipurim" - 'va'Afilu be'Shabbos. 1
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that "be'Asor la'Chodesh" teaches that blowing the Shofar on the tenth overrides Shabbos throughout the land, but on Rosh Hashanah, only in Beis-Din. But blowing the Shofar is a Chochmah, and not a Melachah (Rosh Hashanah 29b)?
Refer to 25:9:3:1*.
Moshav Zekenim: This is merely sn Asmachta. 1 The real reason that it does not override Shabbos is due to a decree in case one carries a Shofar four Amos in the R'shus ha'Rabim.
Moshav Zekenim: In any case, the Gemara learned that it does not over-ride Shabbos from the words "Zichron Teru'ah" (that sometimes we do not blow - when Rosh Hashanah falls on Shabbos), and not from "be'Asor la'Chodesh"!
