1)

What are the connotations of the words "Veha'avarta Shofar Teru'ah"?

1.

Rashi: It means 'You shall announce 1 by means of the Shofar'.

2.

Rosh Hashanah, 27b: It implies that one should blow into the narrow end


1

Rashi: As in Pikudei, Sh'mos 36:6. The Gemara in Rosh Hashanah, 34a actually learns from there via a Gezeirah Shavah that it means 'by means of a sound.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 61.

3

And since the Torah writes "Teru'ah" three times

2)

Why does the Torah repeat "Ta'aviru Shofar"?

1.

Refer to 25:9:1:3.

2.

Rosh Hashanah, 30a: To teach us that every individual is also obligated to blow the Shofar on Yom Lopur of Yovel. 1


1

In adition to the Mitzvah incumbent upon Beis-Din. See Oznayim la'Torah DH 'Veha'avarts Shofar ... ' #2.

3)

What is the reason for blowing the Shofar at the beginning of the Yovel?

1.

Seforno: It is an expression of joy at the releasing of all the Avadim Ivrim, and at the return of all fields (and houses not in walled cities) to their original owners.

2.

Targum Yonasan: It is a reminder to release all Avadim Ivrim and to return all fields to their original owners. 1


1

See also Oznayim la'Torah. DH 'Veha'avarts SHofar ... ' #1.

4)

Why does the Torah insert the words "ba'Chodesh ha'Shevi'i", and not simply write 'be'Asor la'Chodesh ha'Shevi'i'?

1.

Rosh Hashanah, 34b: To teach us that all the Teki'os of the seventh month are the same


1

Refer also to 25:9:1:3*

5)

Seeing as the Torah writes "be'Yom ha'Kipurim", why does the Torah see fit to add "be'Asor la'Chodesh"?

1.

Rashi: To teach us that blowing the Shofar on the tenth of the month overrides Shabbos throughout the land, but not blowing the Shofar on the first (on Rosh Hashanah), which overrides Shabbos only in Beis-Din. 1


1

Ramban: Rashi is teaching us that blowing the Shofar on Yom Kipur of Yovel is incumbent, not only upon Beis-Din (like counting the years of the Yovel), but also upon every individual. His explanation is Halachically correct, but he did not differentiate between what is Min ha'Torah and what is merely an Asmachta mi'de'Rabanan (since blowing the Shofar is not a Melachah and the Isur of blowing on Shabbos is only mi'de'Rabbanan). .

6)

Having stated "be'Asor la'Chodesh", why does the Torah se fit to ad "be'Yom ha'Kipurim"?

1.

Sifra: To Darshen "baYom", 've'Lo ba'Laylah', "be'Yom ha'Kipurim", 'Afilu be'Shabbos. 1


1

Refer to 25:9:3:1*.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

7)

Rashi writes that "be'Asor la'Chodesh" teaches that blowing the Shofar on the tenth overrides Shabbos throughout the land, but on Rosh Hashanah, only in Beis-Din. But blowing the Shofar is a Chochmah, and not a Melachah (Rosh Hashanah 29b)?

1.

Moshav Zekenim: This is a mere Asmachta. 1 It does not override Shabbos due to a decree lest one carries a Shofar four Amos in the R'shus ha'Rabim.


1

Moshav Zekenim: In the Havah Amina that it is mi'd'Oraisa, the Gemara expounded "Zichron Teru'ah" (sometimes we do not blow, i.e. when Rosh Hashanah is on Shabbos). It did not learn from "be'Asor la'Chodesh"!

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