Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "Ad M'los lo Shanah Temimah"?
Erchin, 31a: To teach us that, if Reuven sold the house to Shimon and Shimon, to Levi, we reckon the year from the time that Reuven, the original owner, sold the house. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 152.
What are the implications of "ve'Kam ha'Bayis ... la'Tzemisus"?
Rashi: It means that if the seller did not redeem the house within the year, his permanent rights in the house go to the purchaser, and the house becomes his forever.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "ha'Bayis asher ba'Ir ... "?
Erchin, 32a: To incorporate oil and wine presses, bathhouses, towers pits, trenches and caves in the Din of Batei Arei Chomah. 1
Erchin (ibid.): But not fields ? stone-quarries - See Torah Temimah, note 156 ? because the Torah writes "Bayis".
Seeing as "Asher lo Chomah" pertains to "Ir" (which is feminine), why does the Torah write "asher Lo Chomah" and not 'Lah'?
Rashi: Refer to 25:30:2:1*.
Yerushalmi, Ma'asros, 3:4: To preclude a house which is inside the wall from the Din of Batei Arei Chomah. 1
As if it pertained to "Bayis". See Torah Temimah, note 158.
What is the meaning of "la'Tzemisus"?
Refer to 25:23:2:1.
Erchin, 31b: The double implication of "Tzamis" "Tzemisus" comes to incorporate Matanah in the Din of Batei Arei Chomah. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 159.
Why is the word "lo" spelt with an 'Alef' but pronounced with a 'Vav'?
Rashi: To teach us that, even if the town is not currently surrounded by a wall, it is considered a walled town if it had a wall around it in the time of Yehoshua ben Nun. 1 Otherwise, even if it has a wall now, it does not fall under the category of Batei Arei Chomah. 2
Yerushalmi Ma'asros, 3:4: It is written with an 'Alef' to preclude a house that is built in the wall from the Din of Bateo Arei Chomah. 3
As if to say, 'It doesn't have a wall now, but it had one previously'. Rashi: The Torah ought really to have written "lah" (with a 'Hey'), seeing as "Ir" is feminine, and it wrote "Lo" with a 'Vav', because it has the same sound as "Lo" with an 'Alef'. Hadar Zekenim: The tradition is to pronounce it as if it had a 'Vav', since the Gematriya of 'Vav' equals that of 'Alef' and 'Hey', as if it had written both 'lo' and 'lah'). See also Torah Temimah, note 157, who elaborates.
The reason for this is because the criterion is not the wall, but the fact that Yehoshua sanctified all the fortified towns that he captured ? specifically from the Cana'anim. See Oznayim la'Torah, DH 'asher Lo Chomah' and 'Lo Chomah', who elaborates.
See Torah Temimah, nmote 158.
What are the implications of the words "la'Koneh oso le'Dorosav"?
Bava Kama, 82b: It precludes Yerushalayim from the Din of Batei Arei Chomah, since it was not divided among the tribes. 1
Echin, 31b: "le'Dorosav" precludes Hekdesh from the Din of Batei Arei Chomah ? in the event that the Gizbar purchases a house from a Hedyot, whereas "la'Koneh oso" incorporates someone who purchases a house from Hekdesh. 2
Having just written "li'Tzemisus ... le'Dorosav", why does the Torah need to add "Lo Yeitzei ba'Yovel"?
Rashi (citing Erchin, 34b): To teach us that even if Yovel occurs during the first year following the sale, the house does not revert to the seller (but retains the Din of Batei Arei Chomah until the end of the year - Torah Temimah)..
Erchin, 29a: To teach us that 'Batei Arei Chomah' only applies when the Yovel is in effect. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 162.
What are the implications of "Shanah Temimah"?
Erchin 31a: It implies a year from day to day, 1 and that, if it is a leap year, the extra month is included 2 (and that consequently, if someons sells two houses in one of the Batei Atei Chomah, one on the fifteenth of Adar Rishon, and one, on the first of Adar Sheini, he only has until Rosh Chodesh Adar in the following year to redeem the second house, but he can still redeem the first one until the fifteenth - Erchin, 31b). 3
See Torah Temimah, note 143.
Rashi says that it is three hundred and sixty-five days, and the Moshav Zekenim citing R. Vardimus explains that that is only because the Torah writes "Temimah". Otherwise, it would mean twelve months, and the buyer would not get the added month. Therefore, the added month is included in the twenty-four months of nursing - at which "Lo Sevashel G'di ba'Chalev Imo" hints. (I did not understand the hint, Some learn from the Pasuk two years of three hundred and sixty-five days. Refer to Sh'mos 23:19:5:9 and note. - PF).
See Torah Temimah, note 144.
