Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "Ad M'los lo Shanah Temimah"?
Erchin, 31a: To teach us that, if Reuven sold the house to Shimon and Shimon, to Levi, we reckon the year from the time that Reuven sold the house. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 152.
What are the implications of "ve'Kam ha'Bayis ... la'Tzemisus"?
Rashi: It means that if the seller did not redeem within the year, his permanent rights in the house go to the purchaser, and the house becomes his forever.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "ha'Bayis asher ba'Ir ... "?
Erchin, 32a: To incorporate oil and wine presses, bathhouses, towers pits, trenches and caves in the Din of Batei Arei Chomah. 1
Erchin (ibid.): But not fields
Seeing as "Asher lo Chomah" pertains to "Ir" (which is feminine), why does the Torah write "asher Lo Chomah" and not 'Lah'?
Yerushalmi, Ma'asros, 3:4: To preclude a house which is inside the wall from the Din of Batei Arei Chomah. 1
What is the meaning of "la'Tzemisus"?
Refer to 25:23:2:1.
Erchin, 31b: And "Tzamis" "Tzemisus" comes to include Matanah in the Din of Batei Arei Chomah. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 159.
What is the significance of the fact that the word "lo" is spelt with an 'Alef' but pronounced with a 'Vav'?
Rashi: It teaches us that, even if the town is not currently surrounded by a wall, it is considered a walled town if it had a wall around it in the time of Yehoshua ben Nun. 1 Otherwise, even if it has a wall now, it does not fall under the category of Batei Arei Chomah. 2
As if to say, 'It doesn't have a wall now, but it had one previously'. Rashi: The Torah ought really to have written "lah" (with a 'Hey'), seeing as "Ir" is feminine, and it wrote "Lo" with a 'Vav', because it has the same sound as "Lo" with an 'Alef'. Hadar Zekenim: The tradition is to pronounce it as if it had a 'Vav', since the Gematriya of 'Vav' equals that of 'Alef' and 'Hey' (the two Perushim), as if it had written both 'lo' and 'lah').
The reason for this is because the criterion is not the wall, but the fact that Yehoshua sanctified all the fortified towns that he captured
What are the implications of "la'Koneh Oso le'Dorosav"?
Bava Kama, 82b: It precludes Yerushalayim- which was not divided among the tribes
Why does the Torah add "Lo Yeitzei ba'Yovel", which is seemingly superfluous?
Rashi (citing Erchin, 31b): To teach us that even if Yovel occurs during the first year following the sale, the house does not revert to the seller.
Erchin, 29a: To teach us that 'Batei Arei Chomah' only applies when the Yovel is in effect. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 164.
What are the implications of "Shanah Temimah"?
Erchin 31b: It implies a year from day to day; if it is a leap year, the extra month is included, 1 and that consequently, if someons sells two houses in one of the Batei Atei Chomah, one on the fifteenth of Adar Rishon, and one, on the first of Adar Sheini, he only has until Rosh Chodesh Adar in the following yesr to redeem the second house, but he can still redeem the first one until the fifteenth. 2
Rashi says that it is three hundred and sixty-five days. Moshav Zekenim citing R. Vardimus: This is only because it says "Temimah". Otherwise, it would mean twelve months, and the buyer would not get the added month. Therefore, the added month is included in the 24 months of nursing. "Lo Sevashel Gedi ba'Chalev Imo" hints to this. (I did not understand the hint, Some learn from the Pasuk two years of 365 days; refer to Sh'mos 23:19:5:9 and the note there. - PF).
See Torah Temimah, note 124.