1)

What are the implications of "Vekidashtem es Sh'nas ha'Chamishim Shanah"?

1.

Rashi: It implies that, when the year begins, Beis-Din announce 'Mekudeshes ha'Shanah'.

2.

Rosh Hashanah, 8a: It implies that, in spite of the previous Pasuk - which mentions Yom Kipur, Yovel begins 1 on Rosh Hashanah. 2

1

See Torrah Temimah, note 50.

2

See Torrah Temimah, note 49, as to whether we learn this from the whole phrase or just from the word "Shanah". See also note 51 and refer to 25:10:2:1.

2)

How will we reconcile this Pasuk, which implies that Yovel begins on Yom Kipur, with the previous Pasuk, which implies that it commences on Rosh Hashanah?

1.

Rosh Hashanah, 8b: On Rosh Hashanah the Avadim cease working, and their masters arrange parties for them, whereas on Yom Kipur, they release them.

3)

What is the meaning of "u'Kerasem Dror"?

1.

Rashi, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It is an announcement of freedom 1 for all Avadim Ivrim, both those who have not yet served six years and those who have had their ears pierced.

2.

Ramban (citing the Ibn Ezra) and Moshav Zekenim: "D'ror" means freedom ? that everyone is free to live wherever he wants (from the word 'Ladur' ? to reside), and to take his merchndise to any country he pleases. 2

3.

Ramban (according to Kabalah): It is an expression of 'Dor' (generation). 3 And by the same token - 'it will return to his roots (with reference to "Yovel" in Pasuk 11).

4.

Rosh: D'ror is an expression of 'clean' (without obligation to serve a master) - a free man.

1

Rashi: The word "D'ror" means that they are free to reside (Dar) wherever they please.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 52. Refer also to 25:10:3:2 and notes.

3

Ramban: As in Koheles, 1:4 "Dor Holech ve'Dor ba".

4)

Seeing as Shilu'ach Avadim applies even in Chutz la'Aretz (See Torah Temimah, note 53), why does the Torah insert the word "ba'Aretz"?

1.

Rosh Hashanah, 9b: To teach us that, Yovel applies in Chutz la'Aretz as long as it applies in Chutz la'Aretz. 1

1

Refer to 25:10:4: 1.

5)

What are the implications of the word "le'Chol Yoshvehah"

1.

Rashi (in Megilah, 14b) and Rashbam: It implies that Yovel only applies when all its inhabitants are in Eretz Yisrael, but not when some of them are in Galus. 1

2.

Erchin, 32b: When Reuven, Gad and half of Menasheh went into Galus, 2 the Yovel ceased to apply, and even if all the tribes are there, but not in their correct locations - mixed-up, Binyamin together with Yehudah or vice-versa. 3

1

Oznayim la'Torah: Sh'mitah does apply however, even then.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 54.

3

See Torah Temimah, note 55, who cites a Machlokes Rambam and Tosfos as to whether this is Halachah or not.

6)

What are the connotations of the words "Yovel Hi"?

1.

Rashi: It means that the Yovel year is distinct from all other years, inasmuch as it possesses a name of its own - 'Yovel', after the ram's horn 1 which is blown on Yom Kipur. 2

2.

Ramban #1 (citing Ibn Ezra) and Moshav Zekenim: Yovel 3 is an expression a. of 'sending away' 4 , which is synonymous with 'freedom' ? he is free to go and live wherever he wants 5 - and b. of 'coming' - everyone comes back to his inheritance and to his family.

3.

Ramban #2: Refer to 25:10:3:2.

4.

Rosh Hashanah, 9b: It teaches us that blowing the Shofar, sending away one's Eved Ivri and leaving the land fallow are crucial to the Yovel ? since it refers both to everything that is written earlier ('lefansv ve'Lifnei Fanav') and what is written later. 6

1

Ramban: As in Yehoshua, 6:4 & 5. See Ramban's objection to this explanation.

2

See Sifsei Chachamim.

3

See also Ibn Ezra in Sh'mos 19:13.

4

Ramban: As in Yeshayah, 18:7 and Yirmiyah, 17:8. See also later 26:4 and Targum Onkelos on Bamidbar, Korach, 17:11.

5

Refer to 24:10:3:4.

6

See Torah Temimah, note 56.

7)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous phrase "Yovel Hi Tih'yeh lachem"?

1.

Ramban #1 (according to Rashi): 'The Yovel - via the blowing of the Shofar - should be for you all a reminder' - to the Avadim Ivrim to go free and to the purchasers to return the property to its original owners.

2.

Ramban #2: It should be a time when everuyone is brought back - every man to his inheritance and every man tom his family.

3.

Seforno: To teach us that the purchasers too should be happy to free the Avadim Ivrim and to return the land to the original owner. 1

1

As opposed to Yirmiyah, 34:17.

8)

What are the implications of "ve'Shavtem Ish el Achuzaso"?

1.

Rashi and Rashbam: It implies that the original owner's fields are returned to him. 1

1

Sifsei Chachamim: Because, when a man's fields are returned to him, it is as if he returns to them.

9)

What is the phrase "ve'Ish el Mishpachto Tashuvu" coming to teach us?

1.

Rashi: It teaches us that a 'Nirtza' (an Eved Ivri who had his ear pierced) returns to his family in the Yovel 1 (seeing as we otherwise know it already both as regards an Eved Ivri who sold himself and one who was sold by Beis-Din). 2

2.

Rashbam: It teaches us that all Avadim Ivrim go free in the Yovel, without having to compensate their masters.

3.

Targum Yonasan: It teaches us that Avadim Ivrim revert to their previous Yichus (position of importance).

4.

Kidushin 15a: It teaches us that a Kohen cannot become a Nirtza 3 , because he becomes a Ba'al Mum and cannot therefore return to the Chazakah of his family.

1

The Gemara in Kidushin, 15a learns this from the word "Ish" ? since Retzi'ah applies to an Eved Ivriyah but not to an Amah Ivriyah. See Torah Temimah, note 58.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 57, who elaborates. Rashi, in Re'ei, 15:17: It teaches us that "Va'avdo le'Olam" in Re'ei, 15:17 means 'le'Olamo shel Yovel' and not literally foreever.

3

Some Sefarim learn this from "ve'Shav el Mishpachto." This is a mistake however, since that Pasuk is not discussing a Nirtza. Moshav Zekenim (in Sh'mos 21:6): We extrapolate from here that one may use a Kohen to work (he can be an Eved Ivri, butt not a Nirtza), even though he is equated with K'lei Shareis, which is subject to Me'ilah.

10)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "Tashuvu"?

1.

Sifra: To teach us that also a girl who has been sold as an Amah Ivriyah goes free in the Yovel.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

11)

Rashi writes that "u'Kerasem Dror" applies even to a Nirtza. Why does he make the same comment on "ve'Ish el Mishpachto Tashuvu"?

1.

Divrei David: Because, had it said only "u'Kerasem Dror", one might have thought that he is free, but he does not return to the Chazakah of his family; "ve'Ish el Mishpachto" teaches us that he does.

2.

Sifsei Chachamim #1: The primary source is from "ve'Ish el Mishpachto", based on which we know that "u'Kerasem D'ror" applies even to a Nirtza.

3.

Sifsei Chachamim #2: One might have thought that "u'Kerasem D'ror" is only for a Nirtza who [initially] sold himself. "ve'Ish el Mishpachto Tashuvu" includes even one who was sold via Beis Din.

12)

Rashi writes that Yovel has its own name, based on the ram's horn. But any Shofar is Kosher for Yovel, even if it is not from a ram?

1.

This is one of the reasons why the Ramban rejects Rashi's explanation.

13)

Rashi writes that Yovel frees all Avadim Ivrim, even a Nirtza. What is the source for freeing someone who performed two sins - theft, and choosing to become a Nirtza?

1.

Refer to Sh'mos 21:6:152:1

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