"Ba'Chodesh ha'Shevi'i b'Echad la'Chodesh". Why does the Torah juxtapose this Pasuk to "Ani Hashem Elokeichem"?
Rosh Hashanah 32a: With reference to 23:24:2:1 - it teaches us that we should also insert Pesukim of Malchuyos in the Amidah of Rosh Hashanah. 1
See Torah Temimah note 78, who points out that this is merely an Asmachta.
What are the connotations of "Shabason"?
Ramban: It is a day of rest from work. 1
Ramban (citing Shabbos 24b): It is an Aseh. Consequently, someone who performs a Melachah on it, transgresses a Lo Sa'aseh and an Aseh, 2 and whoever desists from performing a Melachah on it has fulfilled an Aseh.
Ramban and Moshav Zekenim (citing the Mechilta): It is an Aseh to desist even from activities that are neither Avos Melachos nor Toldos, such as transporting Keilim from one place to another. 3
Ramban (citing the Sifra): It is an Asmachta that refers to the Isurim d'Rabanan 4 listed in Beitzah 36b). 5
See Torah Temimah, note 80.
Ramban: Even though the Torah does not write "Shabbason" in connection with Pesach and Shavu'os, we learn one Yom-Tov from the other with a Hekesh in Pasuk 4 (See R. Chavel's footnotes). And it also extends to Shabbos.
See Ramban who elaborates. And this applies to Yom-Tov, but not to Chol ha'Mo'ed, though the Chachamim decreed even the Shevus of Amirah l'Nochri on Chol ha'Mo'ed as well.
Ramban: Some of which are listed in Yeshayah 58:13.
Ramban: Even those that are connected with a Mitzvah, such as declaring Hekdesh and separating Terumos and Ma'aseros.
Why does the Torah insert the word "Zichron Teru'ah"?
Rashi #1: It is referring to the Pesukim of Zichronos and of Shofaros 1 (that we recite in the Amidah) 2 to remember the Akeidah of Yitzchak, in whose place Avraham brought a ram.
Rashi #2 (on the Sidur): It is the name of the Yom-Tov - which explains why we refer to it as 'Yom ha'Zikaron'.
Ramban #1 and Rashbam: Because it is via the blowing of the Shofar that we will be remembered by Hashem for the good (on the day of judgment). 3
Ramban #2: Refer to 23:24:5:2*.
Seforno: It is an expression of joy, 4 of Yisrael rejoicing with their King when He sits on the Throne of judgment. 5
Moshav Zekenim and R. Amram: When Rosh Hashanah falls on Shabbos, we do not blow; this is a decree 6 in case one carries a Shofar in the Reshus ha'Rabim. It is merely a day of Zikaron - reciting Pesukim of Malchuyos, Zichronos and of Shofaros. In Pinchas (Bamidbar 29:1), the Torah writes "Yom Teru'ah" - with reference to Rosh Hashanah which does not fall on Shabbos, when we actually blow. 7
See R. Chavel's footnotes DH 'de'Ha Vadai Hu Safek', who points out that this is in fact, not Min ha'Torah, but an Asmachta. See also Oznayim la'Torah DH 'Shabbason Zichron Teru'ah', who elaborates.
See also Ba'al ha'Turim.
Rashbam: See Beha'alosecha (Bamidbar 10:9) and Ramban to Bamidbar 10:10. Refer also to 23:24:3:1.
Seforno: As in Tehilim 81:2.
See Tehilim 81:4. When we rejoice over His sovereignty, He tips the scales towards Chesed, and judges us mercifully - See Yeshayah 33:22.
Moshav Zekenim says that the Pasuk teaches a Halachah which is mid'Rabanan. This implies like the Ritva (Rosh Hashanah 16a, before DH uv'Mah) says, that 'an Asmachta is to arouse the Chachamim to enact, but Hashem did not make it obligatory, and left it to Chachamim's discretion. This is unlike those who say (like the Rambam's introduction to the Mishnah, just before DH v'Eilu) that the Torah did not intend for this, just Chachamim found a 'Siman' to support their decree. This is heretical!' (PF).
See Torah Temimah, note 81, who elaborates at length.
"Yih'yeh Lachem Shabbason Zichron Teru'ah". Why does the Torah write here "Zichron Teru'ah," but in Bamidbar 29:1, "Yom Teru'ah"?
R. Bachye #1: "Zichron Teru'ah" teaches us that Rosh Hashanah is a Day of Judgement. 1
R. Bachye #2: a. "B'Echad la'Chodesh" refers to Avraham, by whom the Navi writes 2 "Echad Hayah Avraham"; b. "Zichron Teru'ah" refers to Yitzchak, by whom the Torah writes 3 "va'Yar v'Hinei Ayil;" c. "Mikra Kodesh" refers to Ya'akov, by whom the Navi writes 4 "Sh'ma Eilei Ya'akov ve'Yisrael Mekora'i" - an indication that the notes of the Shofar on Rosh Hashanah hint at the Midos of the Avos (Chesed, Gevurah and Tif'eres). 5
Moshav Zekenim and R. Amram: With reference to 23:24:2:6 - the Torah writes "Yom Teru'ah" in Bamidbar - in connection with Rosh Hashanah which does not fall on Shabbos, 6 when we actually blow. 7 8
R. Bachye: Like we find in Bamidbar 5:15 "Mazkeres Avon".
In Yechezkel 33:24.
In Bereishis 22:13.
In Yeshayah 48:12.
R. Bachye: In which case "Zichron Teru'ah teaches us that Rosh Hashanah is a day of judgment ("Teru'ah") tempered with Rachamim ("Zichron").
See Torah Temimah, note 81, who elaborates at length.
And the Torah deliberately avoids writing "Tiske'u" or "va'Hare'osem ba'Chatzotzeros" - as it does in Bamidbar 10:9, or "v'Ha'avarta ... Shofar Teru'ah" as in Parshas Behar, 25:9 - in connection with Yovel - to teach us that the Mitzvah is (not to blow the Shofar but) to hear it being blown. See Oznayim la'Torah DH 'Zichron Teru'ah' #1.
See Torah Temimah note 81 who elaborates.
Why does the Torah not inform us directly that Rosh Hashanah is a Day of Judgement, and that one blows the Shofar on it?
Ramban (in his 'Derashah l'Rosh Hashanah') and R. Bachye #1: Because the concept of Yom ha'Din and of the Shofar is extremely profound, and the more profound something 1 is, the more the Torah tends to hide it and to speak in riddles, 2 3 leaving it to the Chachamim to work out the details.
R. Bachye #2 (citing Vayikra Rabah):
R. Bachye: That is a major cornerstone of our religion.
Like we find by Tefilin in Shemos 13:15, and by Tzitzis in Bamidbar 15:38 & 39, where the Torah omits many basic details of the two Mitzvos. See R. Bachye.
R. Bachye: And we find likewise that the Torah never refers to Olam ha'Ba directly, only by way of hint.
What are the connotations of "Mikra Kodesh"?
Rosh Hashanah, 32a: It teaches us to recite Kedushas ha'Yom (the Berachah of '... Mekadesh Yisrael v'Yom ha'Zikaron') in the Amidah. 1
This is obviously an Asmachta. See also Torah Temimah, note 85, who elaborates.
From where do we know to recite Pesukim of Malchuyos?
Ramban (citing Rosh Hashanah 32a): From the words in Beha'alosecha (Bamidbar 10:10) - in connection with the Mitzvah of blowing the trumpets - "Ani Hashem Elokeichem", which, following "v'Hayu Lachem l'Zikaron Lifnei Hashem Elokeichem", are otherwise superfluous.
Rosh Hashanah 32a: From the fact that the Torah juxtaposes "ba'Chodesh ha'Shevi'i" to "Ani Hashem Elokeichem" in Pasuk 22.
From where do we know to blow a Teki'ah before and after each Teru'ah?
Refer to 25:9:2.1:3 & note.
What is the significance of the blowing? Why is Rosh Chodesh Tishri included in the Mikra'ei Kodesh?
Ramban: Refer to 23:24:2:3. Based on the fact that it occurs at the beginning of the same month as Yom Kipur, it is evident that it is the day on which Hashem judges the nations of the world, followed by ten days of Teshuvah 1 and a Day of Atonement.
Seforno: Refer to 23:24:2:5.
Oznayim la'Torah #1 (citing the Pesikta): Because 'On Rosh Hashanah Adam ha'Rishon was created ... in the tenth hour he sinned, in the eleventh hour he was judged and in the twelfth hour he did Teshuvah and avoided being sentenced to death on the same day. So Ha'Kadosh-Baruch-Hu fixed Rosh Hashanah as a day of judgement on which Yisrael would do Teshuvah'.
Oznayim la'Torah #2: The Pasuk in Tehilim 81:2-3 hints that Rosh Hashanah is the Day of Judgment, when it writes "Tik'u ba'Chodesh Shofar ... Ki Chok l'Yisrael Hu, Mishpat lEi'lokei Ya'akov." 2
Why does the Torah mention specifically "Teru'ah"?
Ramban #1 (according to Kabalah): Because the Teru'ah (which represents Midas ha'Din) stood for our fathers and for us. 1
Ramban #3: Because Teru'ah denotes Midas ha'Din, which is the order of the day. 2 Refer also to Bamidbar 10:5:2:1*.
Ramban: As the Pasuk writes in Tehilim 99:16, "Ashrei ha'Am Yode'ei Teru'ah," and in Yirmeyah 4:19 (See R. Chavel's footnotes).
Ramban: However, a Teru'ah is never blown on its own; it is always flanked by a Teki'ah (Midas Rachamim), one before and one after (in order to contain the Midas ha'Din) - See for example, Rashi in Bamidbar 10:5 and R. Chavel's footnotes DH 'Tiske'u ve'Lo Sari'u'. See also Ramban (DH 've'Al Derech ha'Emes'). Refer to 23:24:3:1*.
How do we know to blow a Shofar and not a trumpet?
Ramban #1: Since the Torah did not yet issue the command to make trumpets, and Stam Teru'ah refers to a Shofar. 1
Ramban #2 (according to Kabalah): Because "Shofar" hints at Midas ha'Rachamim, like "Yom". 2
Moshav Zekenim: A Hekesh equates Rosh Hashanah with Yovel.
Ramban: As the Torah writes in Parshas Behar "v'Ha'avarta Shofar Teru'ah" (25:9).
Consequently, when the Torah writes "Yom Teru'ah", it is as if it was written 'Shofar Teru'ah', a combination of Rachamim and Din. In the same vein, 'Zikaron' hints at Midas Rachamim, in which case "Zichron Teru'ah" too, refers to a combination of Din and Rachamim (R. Chavel's footnotes).
Seeing as Rosh Hashanah and Yom Kipur are both days on which we are judged, what is the basic difference between them?
Ramban: Rosh Hashanah is Din tempered with Rachamim) whereas Yom Kipur is Rachamim, tempered with Din.
Oznayim la'Torah: Refer to 23:27:6:1.
Why are women exempt from Shofar? Why do we not say that, since the Lav of Melachah applies to them, also the Aseh of Shofar applies to them as well - just like we say that whoever is forbidden Chametz has a Mitzvah to eat Matzah?
Moshav Zekenim #1: Perhaps we say 'whoever is forbidden...' only in a case like Chametz and Matzah, for both apply to eating, but we do not say so about Melachah and Teru'ah. 1
Moshav Zekenim #2: Perhaps we say only 'whoever is included in the first Pasuk is included in the second one, but not vice-versa. Even though we say (Berachos 20b) 'Whoever is commanded in Shamor (do not do Melachah on Shabbos - a woman) is commanded Zachor (Kidush, even though Zachor is written first), this is because they were said simultaneously.
Moshav Zekenim: Similarly, wearing Sha'atnez and wearing Tzitzis [are similar, so one might have thought that one who is exempt from one is exempt from the other]. We need a Pasuk to obligate women in Kibud Av v'Em. We do not say that since they are obligated to keep Shabbos they are also obligated to fear their parents (both are in 19:3. Honoring parents is written right after Shabbos - Shemos 20:11-12. - PF).
How many 'notes' must one hear?
Moshav Zekenim: Seeing as the Torah writes "Shofar Teru'ah" (Parsha Behar, 25:9), "Yom Teru'ah" (Bamidbar 29:1) and "Zichron Teru'ah (here)" 1 one is obligated to hear three Teru'os. And since a Teki'ah always precedes a Teru'ah and a Teki'ah always follows it, 2 one is obligated to hear nine 'notes'. 3
Refer to 23:24:2.3:1.
Since we are not sure whether the Torah's Teru'ah is what we call Teru'ah (nine short notes) or Shevarim (three notes, each the duration of three short sounds, or both of these, for each Teru'ah we blow three times (four notes, for one time is Teru'ah and Shevarim) with three Teki'os before and three after. ten notes in all (Rosh Hashanah 34a). We do so three times (thirty notes) before Musaf to fulfill the Torah Mitzvah according to all opinions, and again during Musaf (to confound the Satan - Rosh Hashanah 16a). The custom is to hear another forty notes after Musaf, to make a total of a hundred. (PF). Refer also to 23:24:4:2*.
