What is the difference between "Tishm'tenah" and "Netashtah"?
Rashi #1: The former refers to leaving the land fallow during the Sh'mitah; the latter, to not eating its produce (even just herbs - Mechilta) after the time of Biy'ur. 1
Rashi #2: The former is a prohibition against basic labor - plowing and planting; the latter, against fertilizing and weeding. 2
Ramban #1 and Rashbam: With reference to the previous Pasuk, the former is a prohibition against planting crops, the latter, against harvesting. 3
Ramban #2 (in B'har, 25:5, citing the Mechilta): "Netashtah" teaches us that it is not suficient to gather the harvest and distribute it to the poor, but that one is obligated to allow the poor entry to collect it themselves - even to the point of making breaches in one's wall to give them access to the crops. 4
Seforno: The former refers to relinquishing debts, 5 the latter, to declaring one's produce Hefker. 6
Targum Yonasan: The former refers to leaving the land fallow, the latter, to declaring the fruit Hefker.
Mo'ed Katan, 3a: "Tishm'tenah" refers to digging round the vines, 7 and "Netashtah", to removing the stones from the field.
Mechilta: 'This teaches us that one is obligated to make breaches in the fences surounding the fields and vineyards.
Yerushalmi Pe'ah, 6:1: "Tishm'tenah" refers to declaring the field Hefker in the Sh'mitah, and "Netashtah" teaches us that regular Hefker Sh'mitah, is only valid if it is Hefker to Aniim and Ashirim alike. 8
Each fruit in its time. See Torah Temimah, note 77.
See Ramban's objection to both of Rashi's explanations.
And the Pasuk aptly continues "ve'Achlu Evyonei Amecha ... ' (Ramban). And it concludes "Kein Ta'aseh le'Karm'cha ... " - as it is the way of the Torah to group together grain, wine and oil (as in the second Parshah of the Sh'ma), though in effect, the prohibition extends to all food products that grow from the ground (Rashbam)/
Ramban: Only the Chachamim removed the obligation because of Tikun Olam (presumably to safeguard people's property against wild animals). Though someone who repairs a breach transgresses an Asei (Oznayim la'Torah).
Sh'mitas Kesafim.
The Yerushalmi learns from here that, just as Sh'mitah is Hefker to the poor and rich alike, so too, does Hefker takes effect only if it is Hefker to the poor and rich alike. See Torah Temimah, note 75, who discusses the ramifications of that ruling.
See Torah Temimah, note 74.
See Torah Temimah, note 75.
"ve'Achlu Evyonei Amecha". Does this mean that the rich are forbidden to eat the fruit of Sh'mitah?
Rashi (in Nechemiah 10:32): The Pasuk in B'har, Vayikra, 25:6 - in connection with Sh'mitah, writes "Ve'haysah Shabbas ha'Aretz Lachem le'Ochlah L'cha, u'le'Avd'cha ve'la'Amasecha" thereby incorporating everybody in the Heter of eating Sh'mitah produce. 1
Yerushalmi Shevi'is, 9;6: The Torah means "Ve'achlu Evyonei" "Veachlei Amecha" - to teach us that, even after the time of Biy'ur, both poor and rich 2 are permitted to eat Sh'mitah produce'. 3
Seforno: The Torah means that the poor are also permitted to eat from the rich people's fields.
How will we reconcile the current Pasuk, which mentions only the poor with the Pasuk in B'har Vayikra, 25:6, which incorporates the owner in the Heter to eat Sh'mitah produce?
Mechilta #1 (according to the Tana Kama): The current Pasuk is speaking where there is only a limited amount, whereas the Pasuk in B'har is speaking, where there is a lot of fruit.
Mechilta #2 (according to R. Yehudah ben Beseira and Targum Yonasan[: The Pasuk in B'har is referring to before the time of Biy'ur when everybody is permitted to eat Sh'mitah produce, the current Pasuk, to after the time of Biy'ur, when only the poor are permitted to eat it. 1
Yerushalmi Shevi'is: Refer to 25:11:2:2 and note.
This is also how Rashi seems to explain the distinction. Refer to 23:11:1:1 & 23:11:2:1. It is not clear however, if the Pasuk is referring to after the time of Biy'ur, why it says "Veyisram Tochal Chayas ha'Sadeh", seeing as the time of Biy'ur occurs only when there is nothing left in the field for the Chayos to eat?
Why does the Torah mention together the poor and the animals eating in Shemitah?
Rashi: and Moshav Zekenim: To teach us that, in the Sh'mitah, the poor, like the animals, may eat without giving Ma'asros. 1
Seforno: The Torah is simply giving precedence to the poor over the animals.
Rashi: This teaches us that the produce of Sh'mitah (in Eretz Yisrael) is Patur from Ma'asros.
