What is the difference between "Tishm'tenah" and "Netashtah"?


Rashi #1: The former refers to leaving the land fallow during the Sh'mitah; the latter, to not eating its produce after the time of Biy'ur. 1


Rashi #2: The former is a prohibition against basic labor - plowing and planting; the latter, against fertilizing and weeding. 2


Ramban #1 and Rashbam: With reference to the previous Pasuk, the former is a prohibition against planting crops, the latter, against harvesting. 3


Ramban #2 (in B'har, 25:5, citing the Mechilta): We learn from this Pasuk that it will not do to gather the harvest and distribute it to the poor, but that one is obligated to allow the poor entry to collect it themselves - even to the point of making breaches in one's wall to give them access to the crops. 4


Seforno: Relinquishing debts 5 and declaring one's produce Hefker, 6 respectively.


Targum Yonasan: Leaving the land fallow and declaring the fruit Hefker, respectively.


Mo'ed Katan, 3a: "Tishm'tenah" refers to digging, 7 and "Netashtah", to removing the stqones from the fielf.


Mechilta: 'This teaches us that one is obligated to make breaches in the fences surounding the fields and vineyards 8


Each fruit in its time.


See Ramban's objection to both of Rashi's explanations.


And the Pasuk aptly continues "ve'Achlu Evyonei Amecha ... ' (Ramban). And it concludes "Kein Ta'aseh le'Karm'cha ... " - as it is the way of the Torah to group together grain, wine and oil (as in the second Parshah of the Sh'ma), though in effect, the prohibition extends to all food products that grow from the ground (Rashbam)/


Ramban: Although the Chachamim negated the need to do this.


Sh'mitas Kesafim.


The Yerushalmi learns from here that, just as Sh'mitah is Hefker to the poor and rich alike, so too, does Hefker takes effect only if it is Hefker to the poor and rich alike. See Torah Temimah, note 75, who discusses the ramifications of that ruling.


See Torah Temimah, note 74.


Mechilta: In order to allow access to the poor.


Oznayim la'Torah: Though someone who repairs a breach transgresses an Asei.


Presumably to safeguard people's property against wild animals.


Are the rich permitted to eat Sh'mitah-fruit?


Rashi (in B'har 25:6): Yes! Because the Pasuk in B'har, in connection with Sh'mitah, writes "You, your Eved and your Shifchah" thereby incorporating everybody in the Heter to eat Sh'mitah produce. 1


Yerushalmi Shevi'is, 9;6: Commenting on the phrase "Ve'achlu Evyonei Amecha", 2 'Ve'achlu Evyonei, Ve'achlu Amecha



Presumably because the word "Amecha" is superfluous.


See Torah Temimah, who explains why the Torah expresses itself in this way.


How will we reconcile the current Pasuk, which mentions only the poor with the Pasuk in B'har Vayikra, 25:6, which incorporates the owner in the Heter to eat Sh'mitah produce?


Mechilta #1 (according to the Tana Kama): The current Pasuk is speaking where there is a lot of fruit, the Pasuk in B'har, where there is only a limited amount.


Mechilta #2 (according to R. Yehudah ben Beseira: The Pasuk in B'har is referring to before the time of Biy'ur when everybody is permitted to eat Sh'mitah produce, the current Pasuk, to after the time of Biy'ur, when only the poor are permitted to eat it. 1


Yerushalmi Shevi'is: Refer to 25:11:2:2 and note.


This is also how Rashi seems to explain the distinction. Refer to 23:11:1:1 & 23:11:2:1. It is not clear however, if the Pasuk is referring to after the time of Biy'ur, why it says "Veyisram Tochal Chayas ha'Sadeh", seeing as the time of Biy'ur occurs only when there is nothing left in the field for the Chayos to eat?


Why does the Torah mention together the poor and the animals eating in Shemitah?


Rashi: and Moshav Zekenim: To teach us that, in the Sh'mitah, the poor, like the animals, may eat without giving Ma'asros. 1


Seforno: The Torah is simply giving precedence to the poor over the animals.


Rashi: This teaches us that the produce of Sh'mitah (in Eretz Yisrael) is Patur from Ma'asros.

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