Why does the Torah insert the word "Kol" in "va'Ya'anu Kol ha'Am"?
Rashi (to 20:15): To teach us that there was not a dumb person among them. 1
Oznayim la'Torah: Bearing in mind that, as a rule, if Reuven will say that now it is day, Shimon will say that it is night, and Levi will maintain that it is Bein ha'Shemashos, it was nothing short of a miracle that all the people declared in unison, "Kol Asher Diber Hashem Na'aseh!"
Because every sick person among them was healed at Matan Torah. Refer also to 20:15:2:1 . And by the same token, all the deaf were healed, which we learn from the fact that they all proclaimed "Na'aseh v'Nishma!" - in Shemos 24:7 (Rashi ibid). None were blind - so they would all see the visions of Har Sinai, and that there was no form or image to be seen (see Oznayim la'Torah on Pasuk 11).
What are the connotations of ?Kol asher Diber Hashem Na?aseh??
Ramban: With reference to 19:7:1:1 ? they chose to accept whatever Hashem commanded them.
R. Bachye: They voluntarily undertook to accept the yoke of Torah and Mitzvos.
Seforno: The people meant that they undertook to do whatever Hashem told them directly ? but not what they heard from a Mal?ach 1 ? but Moshe thought that they were merely accepting to perform whatever Hashem said.
Why did the people say, "Kol Asher Diber Hashem Na'aseh!" and not 'Kol Asher Dibarta... '?
Oznayim la'Torah: It seems that there was a nagging doubt in their minds as to whether Moshe had transmitted Hashem's words accurately. 1
When did Moshe pass on Yisrael's reply to Hashem?
Why did Moshe find it necessary to bring Yisrael's response back to Hashem? Didn't Hashem know it already?
Rashi #1: This teachus us protocol, that it is good manners to return word to the sender, even if he knows the answer already.
Rashi (in Vayikra 1:1): Hashem actually instructed Moshe to tell Yisrael what He said and to report back to Him.
